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Consider a wheel on a frictionless horizontal surface. If we apply a horizontal force (parallel to the surface and above the level of the center of mass), what happens to the wheel? Does it roll or slide forward or rotate only or does any other phenomenon happen? Please guide me. Also draw a free body diagram.

Note: This is a thought experiment. If the question is not satisfying, I am sorry for that and please guide me.

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  • $\begingroup$ Related question physics.stackexchange.com/q/158817/58234 $\endgroup$
    – ChrisM
    Commented Jun 24, 2020 at 14:10
  • $\begingroup$ "Does it roll or slide forward or rotate only" It depends on whether or not the condition for rolling without slipping is met, namely, whether or not $a=\alpha r$ where $a$ is the horizontal acceleration of the center of mass, $\alpha$ is the angular acceleration due to the torque of F about the COM, and $r$ is the radius of the wheel. $\endgroup$
    – Bob D
    Commented Jul 31, 2023 at 21:30

5 Answers 5

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Consider the Free Body Diagram:

Rotation forces

where:

  • $F$ is a driving force
  • $mg$ the weight of the wheel
  • $F_N$ a reactive force, called the Normal force
  • $F_f$ a friction force

We can now establish some force/torque balances.

In the vertical ($y$) direction, there no motion because with $\text{N2L}$:

$$\Sigma F_y=F_N-mg=0 \Rightarrow F_N=mg$$

The friction force is usually modeled as:

$$F_f=\mu F_N=\mu mg$$

As long as no slipping occurs, $\mu$ is the static friction coefficient.

Now, looking at the balance of torques about the CoG (marked as $+$) we have a net torque balance $\tau$:

$$\tau=F\lambda-F_f R=F\lambda-\mu mg R$$

As per $\text{N2L}$ (applied for rotation) this causes angular acceleration $\alpha$, in the clockwise direction:

$$\tau= I_w \alpha \Rightarrow \alpha=\frac{\tau}{I_w}$$

where $I_w$ is the inertial moment of the wheel.

Note that $\alpha=\frac{\text{d}\omega}{\text{d}t}$.

Without slipping/sliding, we can write $v=\omega R$ and also:

$$a=\alpha R$$

Or:

$$a=\frac{F\lambda-\mu mg R}{I_w}R$$

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  • $\begingroup$ I asked for frictionless surface, please. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 16, 2020 at 1:38
  • $\begingroup$ You CANNOT have rolling without friction. Rolling requires torque to keep the rotational motion going, as also the other answers correctly showed. That torque is supplied by the FRICTION FORCE $F_f=\mu mg$. $\endgroup$
    – Gert
    Commented Jun 16, 2020 at 13:18
  • $\begingroup$ On a frictionless surface the wheel will always slide. For that case, simply set $\mu =0$ in the above equations. $\endgroup$
    – Gert
    Commented Jun 16, 2020 at 13:24
  • $\begingroup$ I have a question! How do we set the direction of friction? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 17, 2020 at 2:23
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    $\begingroup$ It's good question and easily answered. A friction force ALWAYS opposes potential or actual movement, including relative movement. So work out which direction movement would happen in the absence of friction and that the opposite direction is the direction the friction force vector will point. $\endgroup$
    – Gert
    Commented Jun 17, 2020 at 4:28
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It should roll. Whether it will be rolling with sliding or pure rolling we don't know until we know what height the force was applied at. Breaking the motion into Translation and Rotation, we can write one force and torque equation each for both respectively as such-

$F=ma$

$ \tau=I\alpha=rF$

FBD

We can also calculate the condition on the height at which you must apply the force for pure rolling by equalling the net acceleration of the bottom most contact point to $0$. This point will have two accelerations, one from rotation ($=R\alpha$) and one from translation ($=a$). Notice their directions are opposite, so for net acceleration of zero they must be equal. So, we have

$F=ma$

$a=\frac{F}{m}$

$I\alpha=rF$

$\alpha=\frac{rF}{I}$

For pure rolling, $a=R\alpha$

Substituting and rearranging, we have

$r=\frac{I}{mR}$

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Look neglecting friction makes it simple. We have to think only about the applied force for rotational motion as well as translational motion.

So since there is an external force , the body will have some translational motion in the forward direction. This will happen for sure and we can find the acceleration using

F=ma

Now we have to look for the rotational motion. If the force was applied exactly at the centre of mass of the body, there would be no rotation at all (cause is in your previous question).

But since the force is applied at some distance above the centre of mass there would be some Torque(same cause , as given in your question) and hence the body will rotate.

So in your case , there would be both rotation as well as translation or you can say that the body is rolling. For pure rolling I1mbo has given correct explanation.

Thanks for asking. Hope it helps.

Sorry for no fbd's.

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    $\begingroup$ Please check out this simulation and set coefficient of friction to zero: ophysics.com/r1.html $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 18, 2020 at 2:10
  • $\begingroup$ The body doesn't rotate. And it shouldn't as there will be no Torque . You will need to apply a force ( which you included in your question.) $\endgroup$
    – user262060
    Commented Jun 18, 2020 at 7:05
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enter image description here

The equation of motions are:

$$\sum_M F_y=m\frac{d}{dt}\,v-F=0$$

$$\sum_M \tau_x=I\,\frac{d}{dt}\,\omega-F\,d=0$$

Thus :

$$\dot{v}=\frac{F}{m}\tag 1$$ $$\dot{\omega}=-\frac{F\,d}{I}\tag 2$$

Roll condition:

$$v=\omega\,R$$

Slide condition :

$$v \lessgtr \omega\,R$$

$\Rightarrow$ $$\dot{v}\lessgtr \dot{\omega}\,R\tag 3$$

with equations (1) ,(2) and (3) you get

$$F\left(\frac{1}{m}+\frac{R\,d}{I}\right)\lesseqgtr 0\tag 4$$

where $=$ is for roll and > for silde

Thus:

$F=0$ for rolling

$\Rightarrow$

$$v=v_0\,t\quad,\omega=\frac{v_0}{R}\,t$$ where $v_0$ is the initial velocity .

and $F> 0$ for slide

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  • $\begingroup$ What if v is less than omega r? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29, 2020 at 0:54
  • $\begingroup$ Gut question, if the velocity at the contact point is not zero ,you have slid condition I will correct this document, thank you $\endgroup$
    – Eli
    Commented Jun 29, 2020 at 7:08
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Does it roll or slide forward

It depends on where the force is applied and the moment of inertia of the wheel, together which determine whether or not the conditions for rolling without slipping are met without the need for friction.

Fig 1 shows the forces acting on the wheel in the absence of any friction (static, kinetic, or rolling) or air drag, where the line of action of the force $F$ is an arbitrary distance $r_F$ above the center of mass of the wheel (assumed the geometric center). The weight of the wheel is balanced by the normal reaction force of the surface it is on. The only external horizontal force acting on the wheel is $F$ whose line of action is a distance $r_F$ from the center.

Fig 2 shows the equivalent force system where the line of action of $F$ is moved to the center of mass (COM) with a couple (torque) about the COM accounting for the original torque of $F$ about the COM. The wheel has a linear and angular acceleration as shown (where $I$ is the moment of inertia of the wheel about the COM).

The condition for rolling without slipping is, where $r$ is the radius of the wheel

$$a=\alpha r\tag{1}$$

This is based on the distance travelled by a point on the surface of the wheel for a complete revolution has to equal the horizontal distance traveled by the COM in order for there to be no relative motion (slipping) between the wheel and the surface.

Then since

$$\alpha=\frac{\tau}{I}=\frac{r_{F}F}{I}\tag{2}$$

Where $I$ is the moment of inertia about the COM

and $$a=\frac{F}{m}\tag{3}$$

substituting equations (2) and (3) into (1) we have

$$\frac{F}{m}=\frac{rr_{F}F}{I}\tag{4}$$

The moment of inertia $I$ of the wheel will be $I=kmr^2$ where $k\le 1$ depending on the distribution of the mass of the wheel about its COM. thus equation (4) becomes

$$\frac{F}{m}=\frac{rr_{F}F}{kmr^2}\tag{5}$$

which simplifies to

$$\frac{r_{F}}{kr}=1\tag{6}$$

for a thin walled disk (hoop) $k=1$ and $r_{F}/r=1$. So if the force $F$ is applied to the rim of the hoop, the hoop will roll without slipping. For a solid disk $k=1/2$ and the disk will roll without slipping if the force is applied at half the radius from the COM. And so forth. Otherwise the wheel will slip while rolling.

Hope this helps.

enter image description here

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