I know this question has been asked quite a few times on the network but I still can't find a concrete answer. It's quite clear that intensity depends on the square of slit width in a single slit diffraction experiment and its explanation is easy to understand (Explanation). But when I check for the same relation for a double slit experiment, some sources claim intensity is proportional to the slit width (A similar question)(Source 2)(Source 3)
Why is this so? Shouldn't the intensity of each of the slits be proportional to the squares of their respective slit widths, just as it is in the single slit experiment? Or is it because we assume no diffraction occurs in such cases, and if so, how does the $I\propto W$ relation come about? Or is it just an experimental observation? Or is my assumption incorrect?
Please do explain the reasons behind whatever the right answer is. Thanks in advance.