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In his book "Quantum field theory and the standard model", section 7.2 "Hamiltonian derivation" (of the Feynman rules), Schwartz states that the equations of motion $i\partial_t\phi(x)=[\phi,H]$ have the formal solution (eq 7.27)

$$ \phi(\vec x, t) = S(t,t_0)^\dagger\phi(\vec x)S(t, t_0)\tag{7.27} $$ where $S$ is the time evolution operator for the momentum eigenstates, and it satisfies $$ i\partial_t S(t, t_0)=H(t)S(t,t_0).\tag{7.28} $$

I tried to justify this expression, but I didn't manage. Here what I tried.

From $i\partial_t\phi(x)=[\phi(x),H(t)]$ I get $$ i\partial_t\phi(x) = i\partial_t[S^\dagger(t,t_0) \phi(\vec x)S(t,t_0)] = (i\partial_t S^\dagger(t,t_0)) \phi(\vec x)S(t,t_0) + S^\dagger(t,t_0)\phi(\vec x)(i\partial_t S(t,t_0)) = [S^\dagger(t,t_0)\phi(\vec x)S(t,t_0), H(t)] $$

Using the commutator identity, I expand the commutator on the rhs: $$ (i\partial_t S^\dagger) \phi(\vec x)S + S^\dagger\phi(\vec x)(i\partial_t S) = S^\dagger\phi(\vec x)[S,H] + [S^\dagger\phi(\vec x), H]S = S^\dagger\phi SH - S^\dagger\phi HS + S^\dagger\phi HS - HS^\dagger\phi S = S^\dagger\phi SH - HS^\dagger\phi S $$

For the lhs to be equal to the rhs I have to require: $$ i\partial_t S = SH $$ $$ i\partial_t S^\dagger = -HS^\dagger $$

But Schwartz claim is $i\partial_t S = HS$ and in general $S$ does not commute with $H$. Where am I wrong?

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1 Answer 1

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I found the source of the confusion.

In the derivation, I always assumed that the Hamiltonian is in the Heisenberg representation. If I now express my last equation, $i\partial_t S = SH_H$ (the $H$ subscript stands for Heisenberg), in the Schrödinger representation I get $$ \partial_t S = SH_H = SS^\dagger H_S S = H_S S $$

So the time evolution given by Schwartz is the time evolution of the S operator using the Hamiltonian in the Schrödinger representation.

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