I'm following Schwartz's QFT textbook and he finds a differential equation for the operator $$U(t,t_0) \equiv e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}S(t,t_0)\tag{p.85}$$ via the following steps: $$ i\partial_tU(t,t_0) = i(\partial_t e^{iH_0(t-t_0)})S(t,t_0) + e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}i\partial_t S(t,t_0) \\= -e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}H_0 S(t,t_0) + e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}i\partial_tS(t,t_0) \\= e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}[-H_0 + H(t_0)]e^{-iH_0(t-t_0)}e^{iH_0(t-t_0)} S(t,t_0) \ =\ V_I(t)U(t,t_0) .\tag{7.33}$$
where $$ V_I(t) \equiv e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}V(t_0)e^{-iH_0(t-t_0)}\ \tag{p.85}$$ and $\ S(t,t_0)$ is the evolution operator in Heisenberg picture, i.e. $$\phi(\vec{x},t) = S(t,t_0)^\dagger \phi(\vec{x},t_0) S(t,t_0),\tag{7.27}$$ that satisfies the equation $$ i\partial_t S(t,t_0) = H(t)S(t,t_0)\tag{7.28}$$ with $$H(t) = H_0 + V(t).\tag{7.29}$$
However, it seems to me that in the third equality he's suggesting that $$i\partial_t S(t,t_0) = H(t_0)S(t,t_0).$$ Is this relation true? If so, why?
In order to get to the same differential equation, Peskin and Schroeder's book states $$ \phi(\vec{x},t) = e^{iH(t-t_0)} \phi(\vec{x},t_0) e^{iH(t-t_0)}\tag{PS p.83} $$ so that $$U(t,t_0) = e^{iH_0(t-t_0)}e^{-iH(t-t_0)}\tag{4.17}$$ and the following is obvious. Does it mean that $$S(t,t_0) = e^{iH(t-t_0)} $$ also for $H=H(t)$? But then, does this $S(t,t_0)$ satisfy its differential equation?