I usually use terms like 'radiowave', 'microwave', 'X-ray', etc. to refer to ranges of electromagnetic (EM) frequencies ($f=2\pi/\omega$) or wavelengths ($\lambda = 2\pi/k$) in air or in a vacuum, where the speed of propagation is approximately the same as the speed of light in vacuum ($v\approx c$) and the dispersion relation is $\omega = c k\,$. In matter however, $f(\lambda)$ is different than in a vacuum (e.g. for the Drude metal, $\omega = (c^2 k^2+ \omega_p^2)^{1/2}$, with plasma frequency $\omega_p$).
In the literature (or on wikipedia, for different languages), terms like 'ultraviolet' sometimes seem to refer to wavelength ranges and other times to frequency ranges. For the vacuum EM spectrum, there is a fixed correspondence, thus there is no ambiguity.
When referring to EM waves in matter, do physicists stick to using the same terms (e.g. 'ultraviolet') to refer to the same exact numerical values for the ranges of frequency and wavelength, as defined for the vacuum EM spectrum? In that case, whatever numerical value one has for $f$ or $\lambda$ (even for waves in matter), these values could still be referred to as in the 'visible', 'ultraviolet', 'microwave' range etc., even though the described EM wave has a different dispersion relation as a vacuum EM wave.
Maybe it's just me, but it seems wrong to constantly be using the vacuum dispersion relation to convert wavelengths into frequencies or the other way around (e.g. when the terms 'visible', 'ultraviolet', etc. are used in some piece of literature), when one is actually concerned with describing waves with a different dispersion relation.
This confusion makes it a little bit difficult to understand some texts like [Mori, Electronic Properties of Organic Conductors, 2016, p. 120].