The free energy of particles reads, if we assume no internal energy : $\tilde f(c)= \frac{f(c)}{k_bT}=-c \, ln(c)-(1-c)\, ln(1-c)$, with $c$ the concentration.
If we had a term $F(c)$ for the interactions between the particles : $\tilde f(c)= - c \, ln(c)-(1-c)\, ln(1-c) + F(c)$, such that $F(0)=0$, which is reasonable since it's an interaction potential.
The equilibrium between 2 phases $1$ and $2$ is determined by the relations : $\mu_1=\mu_2$ and $\pi_1=\pi_2$.
Now assume you just put your particles that interact with each other in a huge box full of water (an ocean for example). Then, a reasonnable thought is that you can have a phase with only water, and a phase with particles ($c_0$) and water ($1-c_0$). But the relation $\mu_1=\mu_2$ prevents that because that $\mu(0)=-\infty$. And I'm really not convinced by that ! If your particles attract each other, they should at some point aggregate, don't they ? In other words, entropy will never let aggregation win totally !!