I'm going to provide my argument for why I think the tension in a rope should be twice the force exerted on either side of it.
First, let's consider a different example. Say there is a person named $\text{A}$ and a block in space. $\text{A}$ pushes on the block with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$. Then, the block will also push $\text{A}$ with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$ by Newton's third law. Now, consider the case where instead of the block, there is a person $\text{B}$ who is also pushing on $\text{A}$ with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$ while $\text{A}$ is pushing on him. $\text{A}$ will experience a force of $100 \ \text{N}$ because he pushed on $\text{B}$, AND another $100 \ \text{N}$ because he is being pushed by $\text{B}$. Hence, he will experience a force of $200 \ \text{N}$. Similarly, $\text{B}$ also experiences $200 \ \text{N}$ of force.
Now, back to the original problem. There are two people, $\text{A}$ and $\text{B}$, in space with a taut rope (no tension currently) in between them. If only $\text{A}$ is pulling and $\text{B}$ is not, then I agree that the tension is equal to the force $\text{A}$ exerts. This situation (in my opinion) becomes analogous to the above if $\text{B}$ is also pulling. So, say both of them pull from either side with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$. Then, the rope at the end of $\text{B}$ will pull $\text{B}$ with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$ (this pull is caused by $\text{A}$). By Newton's third law, the rope will experience a pull of $100 \ \text{N}$. But $\text{B}$ is also pulling his end of the rope with $100 \ \text{N}$. Therefore, the tension should be $200 \ \text{N}$. Similarly, the end of the rope at $\text{A}$ must pull $\text{A}$ with $100 \ \text{N}$ of force (because $\text{B}$ is pulling from the other side) and hence experience a force of $100 \ \text{N}$ itself by Newton's third law plus another $100 \ \text{N}$ because $\text{A}$ is pulling on the rope.
Apparently, the answer is not this (according to my search on the web). So, could anyone tell me why this reasoning is wrong? Thanks.
EDIT: So, apparently, people don't agree with my first example, leave alone the second. This is to the downvoters and the upvoters of the highest-rated answer: You all agree that if only $\text{A}$ pushes $\text{B}$ with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$, then $\text{A}$ and $\text{B}$ both will get pushed by a force of $100 \ \text{N}$ in opposite directions, right? Then, in the case where $\text{B}$ is also pushing with a force of $100 \ \text{N}$, it doesn't make sense that the answer would be exactly the same. It doesn't seem right that no matter what $\text{B}$ does, $\text{B}$ and $\text{A}$ will always experience the same force as they would have if $\text{B}$ hadn't applied any force.
EDIT 2: I'm going to provide here a link to a question that I posted: Two people pushing off each other. According to the answer and the comments there, the reason as to why my first example is incorrect is different to the one provided here. So maybe you should all read the answer and the comments provided by the person and reconsider what you think.