I deeply apologize for my ignorance, but I am asking this since I still can't seem to grasp what my teachers relayed to me a few days ago about two exercises that I solved in an intrinsically wrong manner and they both share the same mistake.
If I have a moving rod made of conducting material that is submerged in a uniform magnetic field, this will cause free charges within the rod to experience a magnetic force which is perpendicular to both the B field and the velocity, and this I believe was the reason why the rod begins polarizing on both ends which in turn establishes an electric field which will grow until charges within the rod reach an equilibrium wherein both the magnetic force and the electrostatic force are equal in magnitude.
My question is why does the book equate the emf induced (upon considering now the rod being connected to a U-shaped conductor) to the work done by the magnetic force per unit charge. As I understand it, the magnetic force cannot do work on a free-moving charge due to the direction it would point towards, yet at the same time I don't know if I can really say that in this case as am I not limiting their movement due to them being contained in the rod?
This I also have a hard time understanding for a Faraday disk such as this:
Since a teacher from my university did in fact solve it saying that the emf induced would be equal to the work done by the magnetic force upon taking a charge from the center of the disk to the edge. But once again I don't comprehend why, or why not, I would be able to say that the one doing work is the magnetic force when there is movement of the conducting material (and no change in the magnetic flux) which produces a magnetic force that forces the free charges to move.