Let's say I have a conducting rod passing through a constant magnetic field. I get positive charges in the rod moving with velocity will experience a force (eg. upwards) and move up to the top of the rod and hence the potential difference between the top and bottom of the rod will induce an emf.
The thing is, Faraday's law also states that the induced emf is proportional to the rate of change in magnetic flux linkage. Here's what I don't get. Is flux linkage a property inherent in closed loops or can be used for rods as well? I know that rods technically do not have a 'number of turns' but they do have an area.
If so, then there will be magnetic flux through the rod, but as it moves through the field, the magnetic flux will remain the same, so there will be no induced emf in the rod.
Would it be correct to say that there are 2 sources of induced emf in the rod: one from the separation of positive and negative charges and another one from induced emf via Faraday's law (which is doing nothing).
Does that mean that when a rod first enters a magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the rod will increase and there will be an emf induced? Would it mean there will be 2 contributing emfs in the rod, one from the separation of charges and one from the increase in flux linkage by Faraday's Law?
I can't find answers for this online. For a bit more about my knowledge level on this subject, I do not know anything about Maxwell's equations and what they might imply.