Notation: In the following $*$ is the hodge operator from $\Lambda^1(\mathbb R^{1\times 3})\cong \mathbb R^{1\times 3}$ to $\Lambda^2(\mathbb R^{1\times 3})\cong A\subset\mathbb R^{3\times 3}$ (or its inverse), where $A$ is the subspace of antisymmetric matrices.
I would like to check whether the assumption that the electromagentic tensor $F$ transforms like a tensor implies that the magnetic field $B$ transforms like a pseudo vector. $\newcommand{\hodge}{{*}}$ The electromagnetic tensor w.r.t. to a chart $\phi$ is given by an antisymmetric matrix \begin{equation} F_\phi=\left[ \begin{array}{c|c} 0 & -E^t \\ \hline E & \mathscr B \end{array} \right]\in\mathbb R^{4\times 4} \end{equation} with $\mathscr B=*(B^t)\in\mathbb R^{3\times 3}$ and we assume that $F_\psi=M^tF_\phi M$ where $M\in\mathbb R^{4\times 4}$ is the matrix identified wtih $D(\phi\circ\psi^{-1})\in L(\mathbb R^4,\mathbb R^4)$. For the case $$M=\left[ \begin{array}{c|c} 1 & 0 \\ \hline 0 & O^t \end{array} \right]$$ with $O\in\mathbb R^{3\times 3}$ orthogonal this reduces to \begin{equation} F'=\left[\begin{array}{c|c} 0 & -E^tO^t \\ \hline OE & O\mathscr BO^t \end{array} \right] \end{equation} We immediately see that $E$ transforms like a vector, but it is not obvious that $B$ transforms like a pseudo vector. Thus, we want to prove the following implication: \begin{equation} \mathscr B'=O\mathscr BO^t\Rightarrow B'=(\det O)OB \end{equation} This implication is an immediate consequence of the following equation: \begin{equation} *(O\mathscr BO^t)=(\det O)B^tO^t \end{equation} Can someone give me a hint regarding how to prove the last equation?