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In many resources I have seen that incompatible observables cannot have a common eigenbasis set, but may share one or few eigen states. I followed the thread Can incompatible observables share an eigenvector?, where through a matrix example it is proven to be true.

I want to know whether this can actually be true for physical incompatible observables like position-momentum in a direction, or angular momentum in two perpendicular directions and so on. If it happens to be true then in that particular state, measurement of both will be precise and the uncertainty principles:

$$\Delta x\Delta p_x\ge\frac{\hbar}{2} \hspace{1cm}\text{or}\hspace{1cm}\Delta L\Delta \theta\ge\frac{\hbar}{2}$$

seem to be violated.

There may be non-commuting matrices that can share an eigenvector. But whether those matrices can represent physical observables in some basis is a point of concern. Looking for opinions.

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    $\begingroup$ mistaken in writing angular momentum uncertainty principle. I mean $\Delta L\Delta \theta\ge\frac{\hbar}{2}$ $\endgroup$
    – som
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 5:58
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    $\begingroup$ Regarding position and momentum none of them has any eigenvector as the spectrum is purely continuous. Trying to generalize the meaning of eigenvector also doesn't work as they are unitarily connected (i.e. $p = F x F^\dagger$) $\endgroup$
    – lcv
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 6:17
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    $\begingroup$ $\Delta L\Delta \theta\ge \hbar/2$ is to handle with care: see physics.stackexchange.com/q/338044/36194 $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 6:17
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    $\begingroup$ @som You can edit the question to correct typos. I have done the edit and changed $\Delta L_x\Delta L_y\ge\frac{\hbar}{2}$ to $\Delta L\Delta \theta\ge\frac{\hbar}{2}$ for you. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 7:41

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The Heisenberg inequality for any two observables $\hat A$ and $\hat B$ is : $$ \Delta a \Delta b \geq \frac{1}{2}|\langle [\hat A ,\hat B]\rangle|$$

If $\hat A$ and $\hat B$ have a common eigenvector, then in this state we have $\Delta a= \Delta b = 0$, and therefore $|\langle [\hat A ,\hat B]\rangle| = 0$. We can actually explicitly check that the commutator has a zero eigenvalue : let $\hat A|\psi \rangle = a|\psi\rangle$ and $\hat B |\psi\rangle = b|\psi\rangle$. Then : $$[\hat A,\hat B]|\psi\rangle = (\hat A\hat B -\hat B\hat A)|\psi\rangle = (ab-ba)|\psi\rangle = 0$$

In the case of $\hat x$ and $\hat p$ (or more generally any two conjugate variables), we have $[\hat x,\hat p] =i\hbar$, which prevents the situation above from occurring.

Edit : Compatible and incompatible observables

Compatible observables are observables which commute, so that there is a basis of common eigenvectors.

Incompatible observables do not commute. They may or may not have common eigenvectors. If their commutator is non-degenerate, which is the case of most usual commutations relations (eg $\hat x$ and $\hat p$, spin operators, etc.), then they have no common eigenvectors.

It is, however, easy to construct matrices which do not commute and have a common eigenvector. This is done in this answer to the question linked in OP above : take \begin{align} A &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 &0 \\ 0& 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -1 \end{pmatrix}\\ B &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0&0&1 \\ 0&1&0 \end{pmatrix}\\ \psi &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\0 \end{pmatrix} \end{align} Then, $A\psi = B\psi = \psi$, but : $$[A,B] = \begin{pmatrix} 0&0&0 \\ 0 & 0 & 2 \\ 0& -2 & 0\end{pmatrix} \neq 0$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Ok, I understand. It would be helpful if you provide particular example of two incompatible physical observable having such common eigenstate $\endgroup$
    – som
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 6:50
  • $\begingroup$ It's not possible for two incompatible observables to have a common eigenstate. $\endgroup$
    – AfterShave
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 6:52
  • $\begingroup$ @AfterShave, If it is impossible then isn't it sufficient to say that existence of ANY one common eigenstate is sufficient to guarantee compatibility of physical observables? Requirement of a whole bunch of common eigenbasis seems over-conditioned then. $\endgroup$
    – som
    Commented Apr 23, 2022 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ Okay I wasn't entirely correct. Two incompatible observables cannot share a complete set of eigenstates. It's possible to have two incompatible observables share a common eigenvector, or even several but they cannot form a complete basis. For example, the zero vector is an eigenstate of any operator. $\endgroup$
    – AfterShave
    Commented Apr 23, 2022 at 20:28
  • $\begingroup$ Actually, an eigenvector cannot be zero, by definition. Two observables are compatible iff they commute, which is equivalent to them sharing a basis of common eigenstates. The general statement on pairs of incompatible observables is just the negation of the previous sentence. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 23, 2022 at 21:48

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