0
$\begingroup$

I am reading Mark Srednicki's quantum field theory, p.50~p.52 (Part I section 7).

In the section, he derives a the formula for the ground state to ground state transition amplitude of harmonic oscillator in the presence of an external force as

$$<0|0>|_f = exp \big[{i \over 2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dt dt' f(t)G(t-t')f(t') \big], \tag{7.11}$$

where $G(t-t')$ is a Green's function for the oscillator equation of motions.

If furthur information is needed, I will upload continuosly.

My question is, why next functional derivative

$$ {1 \over i} {\delta \over \delta f(t_2)}<0|0>_f |_{f=0} = \big[ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dt' G(t_2-t')f(t') \big]<0|0>_f |_{f=0} $$

is true?

In his book p.46, he states that the functional derivative satisfies that $${\delta \over \delta f(t_1)}f(t_2) = \delta(t_1 - t_2).\tag{6.14}$$

A point that I can't understand is why the ${1 \over 2}$ in the formula for $<0|0>|_f$ is disappeared through the derivative.

My question is originated from following underlined statement in his book:

enter image description here

Why the underlined derivation is true? Can any one provide derivation in detail?

Anyone helps?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ $\frac{d}{dx} x^2 = {\bf 2} x$ $\endgroup$
    – Prahar
    Commented Mar 18, 2022 at 13:41

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

A point that I can't understand is why the $\frac{1}{2}$ in the formula for $\langle 0|0\rangle_f$ is disappeared through the derivative.

It happens because of symmetry. You have $G(t-t')=G(t'-t)$. Using the chain rule we just need to differentiate the exponent, but there the symmetry plays a role. Using the product rule we have

\begin{eqnarray}\dfrac{\delta}{\delta f(t_2) }\left[\frac{i}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty dtdt' f(t)G(t-t')f(t')\right]&=&\frac{i}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty dtdt' \delta(t-t_2)G(t-t')f(t')\\ &&+\frac{i}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty dtdt' f(t)G(t-t')\delta(t'-t_2).\end{eqnarray}

Now you can easily check the two terms are the same. Integrate over $t$ on the first using $\delta(t-t_2)$ and over $t'$ on the second using $\delta(t'-t_2)$. Then relabel $t'$ as $t$, combine the integrals and finally use the symmetry property $G(t-t_2)=G(t_2-t)$. You'll get what he says.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ In the process of using the product rule of functional derivative, key point is ${i \over 2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dt dt' f(t) {\delta \over \delta f(t_2))}(G(t-t')f(t')) = {i \over 2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dt dt'f(t)G(t-t') \delta(t'-t_2) $ This is really true? Perhaps..the functional derivative of the Green's function is zero? $\endgroup$
    – Plantation
    Commented Mar 18, 2022 at 14:07
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The functional derivative is with respect to $f(t_2)$ and $G(t-t')$ simply does not depend on it. $\endgroup$
    – Gold
    Commented Mar 18, 2022 at 15:32
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. O.K. Thanks ! :) $\endgroup$
    – Plantation
    Commented Mar 19, 2022 at 1:46
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ You are welcome ! $\endgroup$
    – Gold
    Commented Mar 19, 2022 at 1:59

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.