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The shear modulus $G$ gives information about the linear-elastic material behavior. How does it behave in the area of plastic deformation? With $ \tau=G\tan\gamma$, shear modulus should get smaller up to a limit value (break), right? I am thinking of metal with plastic strains up to 5%.

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  • $\begingroup$ Are you thinking about damage induced by plasticity? $\endgroup$
    – nicoguaro
    Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 14:46
  • $\begingroup$ In the broader sense, yes. but I'm not sure whether the physics are correct here ... $\endgroup$
    – Frank
    Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 17:46
  • $\begingroup$ In damage mechanics, you consider that the moduli depend on a state variable called damage. $\endgroup$
    – nicoguaro
    Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 18:10

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During plastic deformation, the shear modulus $G$ is typically assumed to be zero. In other words, if deformation is already occurring, then if we overlay a elastic stress–strain experiment, zero incremental stress is required to obtain incremental positive strain, which implies an absence of stiffness, or $G=0$. Through the relations $\frac{\Delta V}{V}=1-2\nu$, where $V$ is volume, and $G=\frac{3K(1-2\nu)}{2(1+\nu)}$, where $K$ is the bulk modulus, we see that $G=0$ is equivalent to the standard assumption of constant volume and Poisson ratio $\nu=1/2$ during plastic deformation.

After plastic deformation, the shear modulus is typically about the same as it was before deformation (say, within a few percent). As an elastic modulus, the shear modulus typically depends—in metals, ceramics, and crosslinked polymers, at least—on molecular bond stretching/compression. Broadly, it doesn't really matter if the bulk material's undergone deformation slip (e.g., if dislocations have moved through the lattice) or if crack propagation has occurred elsewhere; the nature of the bonding remains unchanged. (Edge cases exist where the long-range order of the crystal has been nearly obliterated due to accumulated dislocations and grain boundaries, but this generally requires plastic strains of ≫5%.)

The relation $\tau=G\gamma$, where $\tau$ is shear stress and $\gamma$ is the engineering shear strain or decrease in corner angle, applies only to an independent elastic stress–strain test. You can't take $\gamma$ from plastic deformation and use it to calculate an elastic modulus. Does all this make sense?

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  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks for the answer!!! In the second paragraph I can understand that, from a static point of view, the shear modulus remains unchanged due to the lattice bonds before and after plasticization (does that also apply to the Poisson ratio?). I don't quite understand the first paragraph (During plastic deformation, the shear modulus G is typically assumed to be zero). How does this fit together with the previous knowledge. Do you mean the dynamic process while plasticizing is taking place? $\endgroup$
    – Frank
    Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 17:43
  • $\begingroup$ I.e. before and after plasticization, the shear modulus is identical, but while plasticization is taking place, is the value assumed to be zero? $\endgroup$
    – Frank
    Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 17:44
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, typically. Yes, the Poisson ratio doesn't really change either as long as the crystalline lattice resembles the original lattice. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 13, 2021 at 17:53
  • $\begingroup$ Is there any further literature available on this? I'm looking for references to prove that the physical parameters before and after the deformation can be assumed to be unchanged. Many thanks! $\endgroup$
    – Frank
    Commented Aug 14, 2021 at 12:03
  • $\begingroup$ Broadly, many material textbooks will have a plot like this or this that superficially indicates Young's modulus as unchanging after plastic deformation. That may be enough for your proof. Otherwise, I'd look for research articles on the actual changes during plastic deformation (that I've assumed to be negligible above) and consider their magnitude. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 14, 2021 at 15:38

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