0
$\begingroup$

Reading Curtis' book Orbital Mechanics I found this relation that confused me.

$$ \underline{r}\cdot\underline{\dot{r}}=r\dot{r} $$

What happens, say, for a circular orbit where $\underline{r}$ and $\dot{\underline{r}}$ are orthogonal? Shouldn't the scalar product be zero?

Thank you!

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Welcome to Physics SE. Please, take into account that questions line "check my calculations" or 'hot to go from ea. "X" to eq. "y"' are considered homework-like questions and are at risk of been closed. Just as a hint, what would be $\dot r$ in the case of a uniform circular motion? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2020 at 16:56

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Yes, it should be, and it is. On the right side of the equation, $\dot r$ is zero for a circular orbit, because $r$ is constant.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.