The question then asks for the potential difference between $X$ and $Y$, which is claimed to be $3.6\text{ volts}%$.
Why would there be a potential difference in this case? If I connect a lightbulb on $X$, and another on $Y$, it seems very obvious that the brightness would be the same.
Or is the standard direction of current important? So the current "encounters" the 60 ohm "first" when flowing to $X$, and the 30 ohm "second" when flowing to $Y$? That seems a little crackpot to me. So if we change the resistor to the left of $X$ to 100 ohms, and the resistor to the right of $Y$ to be 0 ohms, the differing definitions of current flow would actually cause a difference in measurement of potential?!?!
The correct answer is worded: