I was first introduced to the mathematical operation gradient, divergence and curl not in Mathematics but during my studies of Electromagnetism. As you all know learning Maths from a Physics teacher always leads to some gigantic misconceptions.
I studied that divergence of a vector field $\mathbf A$ is $$ div~\mathbf{A} = \frac{\partial A_x}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial A_y}{\partial y} + \frac{\partial A_z}{\partial z} $$
And similarly divergence and curl were defined (by writing the div and curl before the vector valued function on LHS). After this the symbol $\nabla$ was introduced and it was said in my book (Feynman Lectures on Physics Vol 2, Griffiths Introduction to Electrodynamics) that $\nabla$ was a vector $$ \nabla =\langle \frac{\partial}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial}{\partial y}, \frac{\partial}{\partial z} \rangle$$So, divergence is our normal dot product, divergence of any vector field $\mathbf{A}$ can be written as $$ div~\mathbf{A} = \langle \frac{\partial}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial}{\partial y}, \frac{\partial}{\partial z} \rangle ~\cdot~ \langle A_x, A_y , A_z \rangle$$ $$ div~\mathbf{A} = \nabla \cdot \mathbf{A}$$ So, the divergence is just the dot product of $\nabla$ with the field whose divergence we want. My first doubt is that in vector algebra we can write $$ \mathbf A \cdot \mathbf B = \mathbf B \cdot \mathbf A $$ but when it comes to our $\nabla$ we find $$ \nabla \cdot \mathbf A \neq \mathbf A \cdot \nabla$$ the RHS in the above relation is something else.
Second problem comes when we define the product $\nabla$ with some other vector, we know from vector algebra $$ \mathbf A \cdot \left( \mathbf B \times \mathbf C \right) = \mathbf B \cdot \left ( \mathbf C \times \mathbf A \right ) = \mathbf C \cdot \left ( \mathbf A \times \mathbf B \right )$$ Now, if we replace $\mathbf A$ by $\nabla$ then $$ \nabla \cdot \left ( \mathbf B \times \mathbf C \right) \neq \mathbf B \cdot \left ( \mathbf C \times \nabla \right) \neq \mathbf C \cdot \left ( \nabla \times \mathbf B \right)$$
Some people say $\nabla \cdot \left (\mathbf B \times \mathbf C\right) $ should be seen as the derivative of a product, even if we accept it that way then also we have few problems, we know $$ \frac{d}{d\vec r} \left( \mathbf B (\vec r) \times \mathbf C (\vec r) \right) = \mathbf B'(\vec r) \times \mathbf C (\vec r) + \mathbf B(\vec r) \times \mathbf C '(\vec r) $$ but replacing $\frac{d}{d\vec r}$ by $\nabla$ and writing the RHS as it is is not that indisputable, you see we got many choices $$ \nabla \cdot \left (\mathbf B \times \mathbf C \right) = \left ( \nabla \cdot \mathbf B \right) \mathbf C + \mathbf B \left ( \nabla \cdot \mathbf C\right) $$
$$\nabla \cdot \left (\mathbf B \times \mathbf C \right) = \left (\nabla \times \mathbf B \right) \mathbf C + \mathbf B \left ( \nabla \times \mathbf C\right)$$
$$ \nabla \cdot \left (\mathbf B \times \mathbf C \right) = \left ( \mathbf B \times \nabla \right) \mathbf C + \mathbf B \left ( \nabla \times \mathbf C\right)$$
There are three more but I'm not writing it as you all have got an idea about what I'm saying. I want to know why we chose this one $$\nabla \cdot \left( \mathbf A \times \mathbf B \right) = (\nabla \times \mathbf A) \cdot \mathbf B + \mathbf A \cdot ( \mathbf B \times \nabla)$$ from the others.
I request you all to please describe the actual character of operator $\nabla$ and clarify my doubts that I have described above. I need an explanation of why $\nabla$ was defined in such a strange way.