I have a question about a rule from the calculus of variations.
Assume we consider the space of differentiable functions on $C^1(\mathbb{R})$ (or for the sake of simplicity the smooth functions $C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$.
My question is why the "variational derivative" commutes with a total derivative, namely why for $q \in C^1(\mathbb{R})$ holds
$$\frac{\delta}{\delta q(\tilde{t})} \frac{d}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\delta}{\delta q(\tilde{t})} ~?$$