In the real-time finite temperature formalisms (Schwinger-Keldysh or Thermo-field), the free propagators are often defined with terms like: $$ \mathrm{Dirac\ Delta}\ \times \ \mathrm{Thermal\ Distribution}(|\mathrm{frequency}|) $$
For example, in Thermo-field theory the free propagators for a real scalar field are: $$ - i \Delta_{11}(p;m) = \frac{-i}{-p_0^2 + |\mathbf{p}|^2 + m^2 - i \epsilon} + \frac{2 \pi \delta(-p_0^2 + |\mathbf{p}|^2 + m^2 )}{e^{\beta |p_0|} - 1} \\ - i \Delta_{12}(p;m) \ = \ - i \Delta_{21}(p;m) = \pi \mathrm{csch}\left( \tfrac{\beta|p_0|}{2} \right) \delta(-p_0^2 + |\mathbf{p}|^2+m^2) \\ - i \Delta_{22}(p;m) = \frac{i}{-p_0^2 + |\mathbf{p}|^2 + m^2 + i \epsilon} + \frac{2 \pi \delta(-p_0^2 + |\mathbf{p}|^2 + m^2)}{e^{\beta |p_0|} - 1} $$
So for example the term with the $\frac{\delta(p^2 + m^2 )}{e^{\beta |p_0|} - 1}$ is concerning me.
The reason I am confused is that I have been reading about generalized functions/distributions and a basic fact about these objects is that you cannot multiply two distributions by one another (ie. multiplying two distributions does not yield a well-defined distribution).
The $\delta$ is obviously a distribution and since we've got an absolute bar on $|p_0|$ in the $\frac{1}{e^{\beta |p_0|} - 1}$ I take it that this is a distribution as well?.
Am I misunderstanding the meaning of $\frac{1}{e^{\beta |p_0|} - 1}$? How are the above propagators meaningful in the sense of distributions?