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Jun 8, 2018 at 12:23 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor
Jun 8, 2018 at 12:20 comment added Qmechanic $\uparrow $ Right.
Jun 8, 2018 at 12:19 comment added QuantumEyedea Could you expand on your comment $\delta(p^2)$ being ill defined itself? Does this means that it must always be understood as $\frac{\delta(p_0-|\mathbf{p}|)+\delta(p_0+|\mathbf{p}|)}{2|p_0|}$ and so must come along with test functions that have a single zero at $p_0 =0$ (I take this to mean that the test function $\phi$ must look like $\sim p_0 + \mathscr{O}(p_0^2)$ near $p_0 =0$)?
Jun 8, 2018 at 12:10 vote accept QuantumEyedea
Jun 8, 2018 at 12:09 comment added Qmechanic I updated the answer.
Jun 8, 2018 at 12:09 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
Added explanation
Jun 8, 2018 at 11:18 comment added QuantumEyedea Thanks for your answer. In the case $\beta \neq 0$ and $m=0$ it would seem that $\delta(p^2)$ has a singularity at $p_0 = \mathbf{p}$ and $\frac{1}{e^{\beta|p_0|} - 1}$ has a singularity at $p_0 = 0$. These coincident when you send $\mathbf{p} \to \mathbf{0}$. Does this mean massless theories are ill-defined?
Jun 8, 2018 at 3:51 history answered Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0