Using the Maxwell equations and making no assumptions about the sources (charge and current densities), can one argue that $\vec{E}\perp \vec{B}$ at all times? Assuming that the EM field stems from a single source or set thereof.
I know that it is fairly easy to show that this is the case when the sources both vanish (i.e. when $\rho = 0$ and $\vec{J} = 0 $).
$$\nabla \cdot \vec{E} = \frac{\rho}{\epsilon_{0}}$$ $$\nabla \cdot \vec{B} = 0$$ $$\nabla \times \vec{E} = -\frac{\partial\vec{B}}{\partial t}$$ $$\nabla \times \vec{B} = \mu_{0}\vec{J}+\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial\vec{E}}{\partial t}$$
That is, if $\vec{E}$ and $\vec{B}$ both obey all of Maxwell's equations without exception,then does there always exist some vector $\vec{K}(\vec{x},t)$ such that
$$\vec{B}=\vec{K} \times \vec{E}?$$
If not, is there some way to specify a set of conditions under which this would be the case? One such condition would undoubtedly be the case of where there are no sources.
Or, at least, is there some explicit way to prove the counter point?