Mathematically, you find that the wave function of a particle $\Psi (x,t)$ moves with the same velocity as the velocity of the particle ($v_{particle} = v_{group}$).
Is there a reason why the particle velocity should not equal the phase velocity?
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$\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/16063/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/34214/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/36242/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$– Qmechanic ♦Commented Sep 7, 2014 at 6:21
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$\begingroup$ See this article for a pretty good description. $\endgroup$– John RennieCommented Sep 7, 2014 at 15:03
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