Mathematically, you find that the wave function of a particle $\Psi (x,t)$ moves with the same velocity as the velocity of the particle ($v_{particle} = v_{group}$).

Is there a reason why the particle velocity should not equal the phase velocity?


marked as duplicate by ACuriousMind, Kyle Kanos, Qmechanic Sep 7 '14 at 16:38

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