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Today, I'm doing an EM problem and my question is exactly the same as this site shows:

http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=133501

To reiterate my confusion, why we can't use that integral formula at the end V(r)=1/4 pi epislon...+1/4 pi epislon... This formula appears right in the same chapter of the problem. I know we can solve it by applying the Gauss Law, but why this formula won't work.

I calculated it by using this formula, and I get a totally different answer.

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  • $\begingroup$ Comment to the question (v1): It would be good if OP (or somebody else?) could try to make the question formulation self-contained, so one doesn't have to open the link to understand the question. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic ♦
    Commented Mar 31, 2014 at 6:47

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