I have a conceptual misunderstanding/confusion, for which I will give two examples to illustrate my problem.
Example 1: In Bohr's atom, de Broglie describes the atomic electrons as waves, where the length of the orbit is given by an integer number of wavelengths $$2\pi r = n\lambda$$ Here, the electron is described as a standing wave around the nucleus.
$\lambda$, being the de Broglie wavelength, is given by $$\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}$$ where $v$ is the particle's velocity.
Example 2: In solid state physics, the electron's matter wave undergoes a strong reflection (Bragg's reflection) on the boundaries of the Brillouin Zone. So the incoming and the reflected waves overlap and produce, again, a standing wave.
From the definition of the standing wave, it has group velocity $v_g = 0 $. The velocity of a particle is given by its wave's group velocity.
My question is, how is de Broglie's matter-wave idea still valid in these situations of standing waves of zero group velocity.