If I have to show that the group velocity of a free particle is twice the phase velocity, is the following argument correct (avoiding to use the wave function and the momentum operator):
For a particle with energy $E$ and momentum $p$ we have the circular frequency $$\omega = \frac{E}{\hbar}$$ and the wave length $$\lambda = \frac{2 \pi \hbar}{p}\, .$$
As usual for waves we get the phase velocity by the formula $$v_{p} = \frac{\omega \lambda}{2\pi} \, .$$ This gives us $$v_{p} = \frac{\omega \lambda}{2\pi} = \frac{E \cdot 2\pi \hbar }{\hbar p \cdot 2\pi} = \frac{E }{p} = \frac{ p^2 }{2 m p} = \frac{ p}{2 m} = \frac{v}{2}.$$ But the speed of the particle, $v$, is nothing but the group velocity $v_g$ of the corresponding wave function. Therefore $v_g = 2 v_p$.