It's obvious that a metallic ring rotating in a magnetic field will have an emf $\epsilon$ induced across it. using a combination of the centripetal force and the Lorentz force, this makes sesne. BUt I'm unable to explain it using faraday's alw. The only idea I can think of is drawing an imaginary radius vector from the centre to the ring, and saying that the area swept out by that changes with time.
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$\begingroup$ Can you explain what axis the ring is rotating around, and what direction the magnetic field points in? Is the magnetic field static? $\endgroup$– Brian BiCommented Oct 18, 2022 at 22:23
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$\begingroup$ My bad. The field is static and into the screen, the ring rotates clockwise on the plane of teh screen. $\endgroup$– math and physics foreverCommented Oct 19, 2022 at 13:58
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$\begingroup$ And the ring lies in the plane of the page? $\endgroup$– Brian BiCommented Oct 19, 2022 at 15:46
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$\begingroup$ yes, it does... $\endgroup$– math and physics foreverCommented Oct 19, 2022 at 16:05
2 Answers
In the OP's setup, with the ring in the plane of the page and rotating clockwise, and the magnetic field pointing into the page, a unit positive test charge in the ring will experience a magnetic force given by the product of its velocity, which is tangential to the ring, and the magnetic field. This magnetic force will point radially outward. For a negative charge, the force will be radially inward.
There will be no emf. The emf around the ring is given by
\begin{equation} \mathcal{E} = \int (E + v \times B) \cdot \mathrm{d}s \end{equation}
where the integral is taken along a given path (e.g. a loop that coincides with the ring) and $v$ is the velocity of the wire at the point where the integrand is evaluated. Since $v \times B$ is perpendicular to $\mathrm{d}s$, the integrand vanishes.
This result, $\mathcal{E} = 0$, coincides with that given by Faraday's law.
Note that the "centripetal force" mentioned by the OP is irrelevant; the charges in the ring must accelerate in the radial direction in order to stay in the ring, but the Lorentz force only depends on velocity.
in Faraday's law the area is a vector, so the area changes fom parallel to B to perpendicular to B.