Faraday's law states that the induced EMF about a closed path is equal to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux enclosed by that path.
Consider the classic magnet and conductor ring problem.
If the ring is stationary and the magnet moves, there is an induced EMF caused by the electric field
However in the moving magnet's frame of reference, $B$ is constant and there is a moving ring that experiences a magnetic Lorentz force, causing an EMF.
Now here's where the problems start.
As I am currently aware, the Maxwell-Faraday law, that relates the electric field induced EMF, holds for any ring that I choose, even if there is no physical ring present.
Thus if I pick an "imaginary" ring instead of a physical conducting ring, then if a magnet were to move, there would be an induced electric field.
Now, if the ring I choose is not a physical ring, then in the magnet's frame of reference, there is a moving imaginary ring... there are no charged particles in this ring, thus there is no magnetic Lorentz force present, thus I would conclude that there is no EMF.
Isn't there a contradiction between the two scenarios? What is going on?