A set of objects $\phi^\alpha$, with $\alpha=1,2,...n$, transforms as a representation $D(\Lambda)$ of dimension $n$ of the Lorentz group if, under a Lorentz transformation: $$\phi^\alpha(x)\to\phi^{\prime\alpha}(x) = \left[D(\Lambda)\right]^{\alpha}_{~\beta}~ \phi^\beta(\Lambda^{-1}x) $$ where $$ \left[D(\Lambda)\right]^{\alpha}_{~\beta}= \left[\exp\left(-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}J_D^{\mu\nu}\right)\right]^{\alpha}_{~\beta} $$ where $J_D^{\mu\nu}$ are the generators in the representation $D$.
Now for a scalar field $\phi$, $$\phi'(x)=\phi(\Lambda^{-1}x)$$ so that comparing with the definition of a representation (first equation), we have, $$\left[D(\Lambda)\right]=1.$$ Therefore, scalar fields are one-dimensinal repreentation of the Lorentz group. So far so good!
Now, since $$\phi(\Lambda^{-1}x)=\exp\left[-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}\mathcal{L}^{\mu\nu}\right]\phi(x)~~ {\rm with}~~ \mathcal{L}^{\mu\nu}=i(x^\mu\partial^\nu-x^\nu\partial^\mu),$$ we can also show, $$\phi(x)\to\phi^{\prime}(x) = \exp\left[-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}\mathcal{L}^{\mu\nu}\right] \phi(x).$$ How does one interpret this? This does not conform to our definition of representation given in the first equation: contrary to the first and the third equations above, we have $\phi(x)$ on the RHS instead of $\phi(\Lambda^{-1}x)$.