I have a question about a calculation which is performed in David Tong's lecture notes on Gauge Theory (page 400, chapter 8). At the bottom (see below for a screenshot), we want to calculate the one-loop diagram. He Wick rotated to Euclidean space. I don't understand how to obtain the second line from the first? When he rewrites the trace?
Also, given that $\left\{ \gamma^{\mu}, \gamma^{\nu} \right\} = 2 \eta^{\mu \nu}$ with $\eta^{\mu \nu} = (+1, -1, -1)$ (we are in $(2+1)$-dimensions), what does this become after Wick rotation? Does it become $\left\{ \gamma^{\mu}, \gamma^{\nu} \right\} = 2 \delta^{\mu \nu}$ with the standard Euclidean metric?
I was thinking of doing: $(\gamma^{\mu} k_{\mu} + m) (\gamma^{\nu} k_{\nu} - m) = k^2 - m^2$ (this is true in Lorentzian signature, not sure if after Wick rotation). From this it would follow that $$ \frac{1}{ \gamma^{\mu} k_{\mu} + m} = \frac{ \gamma^{\nu} k_{\nu} - m}{ k^2 - m^2}. $$ But I think there is a sign mistake, and not sure how to rewrite the term with $1/ ((\gamma^{\mu} p_{\mu} + \gamma^{\nu} k_{\nu}) + m)$.