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Sorry about this question, but due to my limited background in quantum physics I wasn't able to figure out why in ALL the refs I have searched they state it as iffor sure: Why is the square of a creation/annihilation operator zero? Given that this is for a Fock space system.

$$\hat{a}^\dagger~\propto~(\omega\hat{q} - i\hat{p}) \tag{2.14}$$ $$ \hat{a}^{\dagger 2} = 0 $$

The 2 means that the operator is in power two. The same holds true for the annihilation operator. I found some phoney proof (based on the fact that this describes a harmonic oscillator) which I don't like and wish to get feedback from experienced people.

References:

  1. C.C. Gerry & P.L. Knight, Introductory Quantum Optics, 2004; eq. (2.45).
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  • $\begingroup$ Fermionic operators satisfy $(A^\dagger)^2=0$ since you cannot put two fermions in the same state. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2017 at 17:59
  • $\begingroup$ Hi @Mazem: Is this from a textbook? Which page? Which formula? $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Oct 25, 2017 at 18:03
  • $\begingroup$ @Qmechanic Yeah. “Introductory Quantum Optics ”, Jerry & Knight. ~p. 15 There is a load of other handouts here and there from the net. They all state the same thing. $\endgroup$
    – Mazen
    Commented Oct 25, 2017 at 18:34
  • $\begingroup$ @Qmechanic It has been the case to find the variance of the electric field where the creation + annihilation operators are raised to power 2. I can completely understand that this is not a commutative operation (I.e. a.b =/= b.a) but prefer to approach the creation square(and annihilation square) from a mathematical view point of possible) If it is not & better thought of as an axiom as ZeroTheHero refers, I’ll be quite grateful to cite the ref for this. $\endgroup$
    – Mazen
    Commented Oct 25, 2017 at 18:45
  • $\begingroup$ Are you talking about eq. (2.45)? $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Oct 25, 2017 at 18:51

2 Answers 2

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  1. Without context, it first sounded like you were considering fermionic creation & annihilation operators, which square to zero.

  2. However, Ref. 1 is considering bosonic creation & annihilation operators, so they definitely do not square to zero.

  3. If the $\hat{a}^{2}$ or $\hat{a}^{\dagger 2}$ are sandwiched between a bra vector $\langle m|$ and a ket vector $|n\rangle$, then the result is zero if $m-n\neq \pm 2$. Comparison with Ref. 1 reveals that this is exactly what's going on.

References:

  1. C.C. Gerry & P.L. Knight, Introductory Quantum Optics, 2004; eq. (2.45).
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  • $\begingroup$ In equation (2.45) as shown ${\hat{a}}^{\dagger 2}$ disappears and the same holds true for ${\hat{a}}^2$. Probably, it is their addition what goes to zero. BTW, their addition gives you $\frac{1}{\hbar \omega}(\omega^2 \hat{q}^2 - \hat{p}^2)$. How could this value be zero? Does it have to do eigen propoerty of vectors? $\endgroup$
    – Mazen
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 10:37
  • $\begingroup$ They disappear independently! $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 10:42
  • $\begingroup$ is there a way to prove that mathematically? $\endgroup$
    – Mazen
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 10:45
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. You need: 1. $\hat{a}|0\rangle=0$; 2. $\langle 0|\hat{a}^{\dagger }=0$; 3. the CCR; 4. and a couple of definitions. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 10:49
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There are two different types of creation and annihilation operators:

  • One is the bosonic set, which obeys the commutation relation $[a,a^\dagger]=1$ (and trivially $[a,a]=0=[a^\dagger,a^\dagger]$), and for which you can define quadratures via $q=\frac12(a+a^\dagger)$ and $p=\frac{1}{2i}(a-a^\dagger)$ which obey $[q,p]=i$, i.e. $a=q+ip$ and $a^\dagger=q-ip$ can be seen as the ladder operators for a harmonic oscillator with hamiltonian $H=\frac12(p^2+q^2)$.

  • The other is the fermionic set, which obeys the anticommutation relations $\{c,c^\dagger\}=1$, $\{c,c\}=0=\{c^\dagger,c^\dagger\}$, from which follows that $c^2=0=(c^\dagger)^2$.

The question incorrectly conflates properties of the two sets, i.e. the question as written asserts that 'the' creation operator obeys both $(a^\dagger)^2=0$ and $a^\dagger = q-ip$ where $q$ and $p$ are reasonably-behaved quadratures. There is no such operator: it's either fermionic, with the first property, or bosonic, with the second property.

However, OP's reference for that first property makes a much weaker claim: Gerry & Knight's eq. (2.45) does not require that $(a^\dagger)^2=0$ or that $a^2=0$; instead, it only requires that their expectation values over Fock states vanish, i.e. $$ ⟨n|a^2|n⟩=0=⟨n|(a^\dagger)^2|n⟩. $$ These two properties are complex conjugates of each other, and they can be rigorously proved from the facts that $$ a|n⟩=\sqrt{n}|n-1⟩ $$ so therefore $$ a^2|n⟩=\sqrt{n(n-1)}|n-2⟩ $$ and thus $$ ⟨n|a^2|n⟩=\sqrt{n(n-1)}⟨n|n-2⟩=0. $$ However, just because the expectation values of an operator vanish in the Fock basis (like they do for $a$ and $a^\dagger$ themselves) does not mean that the operator is identically zero, so e.g. $⟨0|a^2|2⟩ = \sqrt{2}\neq 0$ as a simple example.

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  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks for your clarification. Now that is a complete answer! Honestly, I managed to prove that $<n|a^{\dagger 2}|n> = 0$ just before your post and was just about to answer my own question. But this is more comprehensive and covers the subtlty between fermionic and bosonic operators. $\endgroup$
    – Mazen
    Commented Oct 29, 2017 at 13:34

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