I am studying the "dipole approximation" as is defined in quantum optics. (See, for example Introductory Quantum Optics by Gerry and Knight, pages 24–25.) In this situation, we have the operator of the electric field for a single-mode plane wave as $$\hat{E}(\textbf{r}, t)= i \mathcal{E}\textbf{e}_{x}\left[\hat{a}e^{i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r} - \omega t)} - \hat{a}^{\dagger}e^{-i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r} - \omega t)} \right], \tag{1}$$ where $\mathcal{E}$ is a real constant playing the role of an amplitude, $\textbf{e}_{x}$ is the polarization unit vector, $\omega$ is the frequency of the plane wave, and $\hat{a}$ ($\hat{a}^{\dagger}$) is the photon annihilation (creation) operator.
The book explains that in much of quantum optics, the spatial variation of the field over the dimensions of an atomic system may be negligible. For example, for optical radiation, the wavelength characterized by $\lambda=\frac{2\pi c}{\omega}$ is several times bigger than the dimensions of the atom; that is, $$\frac{\lambda}{2\pi}= \frac{1}{\left|\textbf{k} \right|}\gg \left|\textbf{r}_{\text{atom}} \right|, \tag{2}$$ where $\left|\textbf{r}_{\text{atom}} \right|$ is a length characteristic of the size of an atom. Under this assumption, the exponentials in eq. (1) containing the dot product $\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}$ can be approximated as $$e^{\pm i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}) }\approx 1 \pm i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}). \tag{3} $$ The last equation of course comes from the Maclaurin series expansion of the exponential and taking $(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}) \ll 1$ (that is, very small), in order to have powers greater than one in the expansion be negligible; that is, $$e^{\pm i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r})}= 1 \pm i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}) + \frac{1}{2!}(\pm i\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r})^2 \pm \frac{1}{3!} (\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r})^3 + \cdots \approx 1 \pm i(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}). \tag{4} $$ Then, taking this last equation, the electric field operator from eq. (1) can be written as $$ \hat{E}(\textbf{r}, t)= i \mathcal{E}\textbf{e}_{x}\left[\hat{a}e^{-i\omega t} - \hat{a}^{\dagger}e^{+i\omega t} \right]. \tag{5}$$ Then, my question is: Why, under the dipole approximation, can we take $(\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{r}) \ll 1$?