If a function $f(x(t),y(t))$ has no explicit dependence on the variable $t$, then $\frac{\partial f}{\partial t}=0$.
In quantum field theory, the Lagrangian density $\mathcal{L}(\phi,\partial_\mu\phi)$ has no explicit dependence of $x^{\mu}$, and therefore, as I understand $\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial x^{\mu}}\equiv \partial_\mu\mathcal{L}$ being a partial derivative should also vanish.
However, in deriving Noether's current, in almost all books (for example, in W. Greiner, Bjorken and Drell, or Lewis Ryder) didn't set this term to zero. Why is that?
On the other hand, if this term is really set equal to zero, we do not reach at the correct expression for the Noether's current. But I do not understand why should $\partial_\mu\mathcal{L}\neq 0$?