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A magnetic monopole is a hypothetical particle with only one magnetic pole. Their magnetic fields would not be divergence-less. Predicted by certain modern theories, including string theory, supergravity, and various popular grand unified theories.

7 votes
0 answers
187 views

Can the Dirac quantization condition be derived within Lev Vaidman's formalism without gauge...

Textbooks often claim that phenomena like the Aharonov-Bohm effect require that any local formulation of quantum gauge theory use gauge potential fields. (It's also sometimes claimed that the A-B effe …
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4 votes
1 answer
683 views

Is there either a Lagrangian or a Hamiltonian formulation of electromagnetism with continuou...

Maxwell's equations generalize very nicely if we add in magnetic monopoles: we get $$\begin{align*} \partial_\mu F^{\mu \nu} &= J^\nu \\ \partial_\mu \tilde{F}^{\mu \nu} &= \tilde{J}^\nu, \end{align*} …
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9 votes
1 answer
521 views

Why isn't Dirac credited with the discovery of the Aharonov-Bohm effect?

Above equation (8) of Dirac's famous 1931 paper in which he proposes his quantization condition for magnetic monopoles, he says "the change in [an electron's] phase around [a] closed curve [is] $2 \pi …
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6 votes
1 answer
870 views

Which charge to use in the Dirac quantization condition?

I have a follow-up question to Dirac magnetic monopoles and quark fractional electric charge quantization, regarding whether the "unit of electric charge" in the Dirac quantization condition should be …
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