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I first encountered the effective action in Nakahara's discussion of the abelian anomaly (section 13.2). There the effective action $W$ is given by the formula$$e^{-W}=\int\mathcal D\psi\mathcal D\bar\psi e^{-\int dx\bar\psi iD\psi},$$ where $D=\gamma^\mu \nabla_\mu$ is the Dirac operator. Note that $D$ acts on spinor fields, i.e. sections of a twisted spinor bundle (section 12.6.2).

I do not quite understand the integral on the RHS. In view of the integration measure it looks like we have a double integral/two integration variables $\psi$ and $\bar\psi$. But on the other hand, I know that $\bar\psi$ usually denotes the Dirac conjugate of $\psi$, which suggest that we only have one intregration variable $\psi$.

Sorry if this is a dumb question - I am lacking an introductory course to quantum field theory. But I am familiar with the mathematics of gauge theories (principal fiber bundles, covariant derivatives...), so do not hesitate to use that language. Additional references for further reading are also appreciated.

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    $\begingroup$ Hint: transformation from $(\mathrm{Re}(z),\mathrm{Im}(z))$ to $(z,\overline{z})$, with $z$ a Grassmann-odd-valued variable. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12 at 10:42
  • $\begingroup$ @JeanbaptisteRoux Thank you for the hint! Unfortunately I do not quite understand yet. I assume that Grassmann algebra is synonymous with exterior algebra. That being said, I am used to $\mathrm{Re}$, $\mathrm{Im}$ and complex conjugation being functions on $\mathbb C$, whereas you apply them to elements of an exterior algebra, correct? Could you please clarify the meaning and also which exterior algebra are you considering, i.e. what is the underlying vector space? $\endgroup$
    – Filippo
    Commented Oct 12 at 12:41
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, the Grassmann algebra is the exterior algebra. You can construct complex-valued Grassmann numbers from the real-valued Grassmann numbers in a manner entirely analogous to the construction of complex numbers from the reals. You can find more in the Wikipedia entry $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12 at 14:36
  • $\begingroup$ @JeanbaptisteRoux Thank you for the link, but the definition of $\mathrm{Re}(z)$, $\mathrm{Im}(z)$ and $\overline z$ with $z$ a Grassmann number is not addressed in the article, is it? $\endgroup$
    – Filippo
    Commented Oct 12 at 14:56
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    $\begingroup$ Oh, you are right! Then you can consult section 9.5 of Peskin and Schroeder (I think you can find this book online in case you don't have a copy of it) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12 at 15:08

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The Berezin path integral can be viewed as an infinite product of Berezin integrals. The notation is the same as for regular integrals against a measure because it just works like it (modulo a subtlety for changes of variables) when it comes to defining a kind of integration measure. So let us first think of a complex scalar field: \begin{equation} \int \mathcal{D}[\mathrm{Re}(\phi)]\mathcal{D}[\mathrm{Im}(\phi)]f[\phi] \equiv \left(\int \prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d[\mathrm{Re}(\phi_x)]d[\mathrm{Im}(\phi_x)]\right)f[\phi]. \tag{1} \end{equation} Where the subscript means we evaluate the field at $x$ (to avoid nested brackets for clarity). Now, we can use a change of variable: \begin{align} &\mathrm{Re}(\phi_x) \leadsto \mathrm{Re}(\phi_x)+i\mathrm{Im}(\phi_x) = \phi_x, \tag{2} \\ &\mathrm{Im}(\phi_x) \leadsto -i\mathrm{Im}(\phi_x)+\mathrm{Re}(\phi_x) = \overline{\phi}_x. \tag{3} \end{align} The determinant of this transformation is a constant that we now absorb in the integration measure $d[\mathrm{Re}(\phi_x)]d[\mathrm{Im}(\phi_x)] \leadsto d\phi_x d\overline{\phi}_x$. The purpose of not showing the constant is that, since $\mathcal{D}\phi$ is a purely notational convention, it can absorb any constant we want, as long as we don't integrate over a possible dependence on another field (like in the case where one would eventually also integrate over a gauge field, as your notation could suggest). Anyway, we can write: \begin{equation} \left(\int \prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d[\mathrm{Re}(\phi_x)]d[\mathrm{Im}(\phi_x)]\right)f[\phi] \leadsto \left(\int \prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d\phi_x d\overline{\phi}_x\right)f[\phi] \equiv \int \mathcal{D}\phi \mathcal{D}\overline{\phi}f[\phi]. \tag{4} \end{equation} For Berezin integrals, this is formally the same procedure except for the determinant, which is in the denominator now! But since we absorb it in the integration measure, we won't see any difference. Let $\psi$ be a Dirac bi-spinor, and $\psi^\dagger$ its transpose-conjugate. We have: \begin{equation} \psi\equiv \left(\begin{matrix} \theta_1\\ \theta_2 \\ \chi_1 \\ \chi_2 \end{matrix} \right),\,\,\,\psi^\dagger \equiv \left(\begin{matrix} \overline{\theta}_1 & \overline{\theta}_2 & \overline{\chi}_1 & \overline{\chi}_2 \end{matrix} \right). \tag{5} \end{equation} With $(\theta_1,\theta_2)$ and $(\chi_1,\chi_2)$ two pairs of complex Grassmann-odd-valued fields (sometimes, one writes instead $(-\chi_2,\chi_1)$ to emphasize the $\mathbb{C}$-structure of the space of bi-spinors.) Then, defining the Berezin path integral as: \begin{equation} \left(\int \prod_{i=1}^2\prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d[\mathrm{Re}(\theta_{i,x})]d[\mathrm{Im}(\theta_{i,x})]\right)\left(\int \prod_{i=1}^2\prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d[\mathrm{Re}(\chi_{i,x})]d[\mathrm{Im}(\chi_{i,x})]\right)f[\psi]. \tag{6} \end{equation} Analogously to the previous case of a real scalar field, we can bring this expression into a form: \begin{equation} (6) \leadsto \left(\int \prod_{i=1}^2\prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d\theta_{i,x}d \overline{\theta}_{i,x}\right)\left(\int \prod_{i=1}^2\prod_{x\in \mathbb{R}^{1,3}}d\chi_{i,x}d\overline{\chi}_{i,x}\right)f[\psi] \equiv \int \mathcal{D}\psi \mathcal{D}\psi^\dagger f[\psi]. \tag{7} \end{equation} Now, for the Dirac conjugate instead of the transpose-complex one, just use the determinant of $\gamma^0$ (in the denominator because we work with anti-commuting numbers), which is $1$. So finally we have defined (at least at the physicist's level) something of the form: \begin{equation} \int \mathcal{D} \psi \mathcal{D} \overline{\psi}\,f[\psi]. \tag{8} \end{equation} To conclude, I should say that technically, writing $\mathcal{D} \psi \mathcal{D} \overline{\psi}$ or $\mathcal{D} \overline{\psi} \mathcal{D} \psi$ is a matter of convention. The idea behind not using the real and imaginary parts is 1) for notational convenience and 2) because we can treat the fields and their conjugate as independent variables. So the notation $\mathcal{D} \psi \mathcal{D} \overline{\psi}$ makes sense.

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  • $\begingroup$ Comments have been moved to chat; please do not continue the discussion here. Before posting a comment below this one, please review the purposes of comments. Comments that do not request clarification or suggest improvements usually belong as an answer, on Physics Meta, or in Physics Chat. Comments continuing discussion may be removed. $\endgroup$
    – rob
    Commented Oct 15 at 23:17

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