0
$\begingroup$

An exercise asks one to show that given $v, u$ speeds much smaller than $c$ and oriented orthagonally, the composition of the lorentz boosts $B(\mathbf{v})B(\mathbf{u})B(\mathbf{-v})B(\mathbf{-u})$ is a rotation, and find the angle and direction of rotation.

Let $B(\mathbf{v})B(\mathbf{u})$ be written as $R(\mathbf{\epsilon})B(c\mathbf{a}/\gamma)$, and $B(\mathbf{-v})B(\mathbf{-u})$ as $B(-c\mathbf{b}/\gamma)R(\epsilon)$. Then the full product is $R(\mathbf{\epsilon})B(c\mathbf{a}/\gamma)B(-c\mathbf{b}/\gamma)R(\epsilon)$. If this is a pure rotation, then $B(c\mathbf{a}/\gamma)B(-c\mathbf{b}/\gamma)$ has to be a pure rotation, I don't see why this is.

Is the rotation aspect here the result of an approximation? In general, can you produce pure rotation through a product of boosts?(edit: yes from naturallyInconsistent's answer)

enter image description here

enter image description here

Doing it via. bruteforcing the matrix, I took the frame where $\mathbf{v}$ and $\mathbf{u}$ are aligned with the x and y axis respectively and got the following matrix for the spatial part of the transformation. Indeed $\mathbf{e_z}$ is an eigenvector and seems to be the axis of rotation, but I couldn't seem proceed to simplify it as $\gamma_v^2(1-\gamma_u^2v)$ goes to $1+v$ whilst $\gamma_u^2(1-\gamma_v^2u)$ goes to $1+u$ for small $u$, $v$. \begin{bmatrix} \gamma_v^2(1-\gamma_u^2v) & \gamma_v\gamma_uvu(\gamma_v+\gamma_u-\gamma_v\gamma_u) & 0 \\ -\gamma_v\gamma_uvu & \gamma_u^2(1-\gamma_v^2u) & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}

I am trying to find a $\theta$ s.t. this is equal to \begin{bmatrix} \cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta) & 0\\ \sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta) & 0\\ 0 & 0 & 1\\ \end{bmatrix}

Is this what one would usually look for?

$\endgroup$
5
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Errm, what prevents you from trying $B(\vec v)B(\vec u)B(-c\vec a/\gamma)$ and thereby obtain a pure rotation? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 10:03
  • $\begingroup$ I always thought of boosts AS rotations between spatial-temporal dimensions $\endgroup$
    – R. Rankin
    Commented Jun 24 at 10:03
  • $\begingroup$ It would be helpful if you use consistent ($v_1, v_2$) notation and explain symbols such as a,b,M. $\endgroup$
    – my2cts
    Commented Jun 24 at 10:07
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ The claim is correct: the listed composition of boosts will in general produce a rotation. If you think otherwise, you need to produce your working is a lot more detail than you are currently doing. As things stand, it's impossible to explain in any more detail why the claim does work. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 11:48

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

Ever? Always, of course, for infinitesimal boosts.

Review your Wigner rotations but consider the evidently superior 2$\times$2 matrix representation of the spinor map, which protects you from the busy 4×4 matrix confusions you appear to be laboring under. Utilize rapidities, $$ \vec u = c \hat x \tanh \zeta, \qquad \vec v = c \hat y \tanh \xi, $$ so, for all boost speeds/rapidities, you just have the group commutator $$ B(\vec v)B(\vec u)B(-\vec v)B(-\vec u)= e^{\xi \sigma_2/2} e^{\zeta \sigma_1/2}e^{-\xi \sigma_2/2}e^{-\zeta \sigma_1/2}. $$

The equivalent of this is worked out explicitly in this answer, but for small rapidities this collapses to a triviality, necessarily the algebra commutator augmenting the identity; to lowest (quadratic) non vanishing order, it is but $$ (1+\xi \sigma_2/2 +...) (1+\zeta \sigma_1/2 +...)(1-\xi \sigma_2/2 +...)(1-\zeta \sigma_1/2 +...)\\ = 1+ \zeta \xi ~i\sigma_3/2+... $$ a small rotation around the $\hat z$ axis by an angle $\zeta \xi$.

Now, utilizing the linked answer, you can always arrange that $$ B(-c \tanh\! f ~~(\hat{x} \cos\phi +\hat{y} \sin\phi))~B(\vec v)B(\vec u) = R(\theta \hat z), $$for finite rapidities, without any approximations. $\phi$, θ and f are the functions of v and u specified there.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your response, I am not familiar with this language but I will take a look. What is meant by "general, finite, formulas"? $\endgroup$
    – Y G
    Commented Jun 24 at 16:30
  • $\begingroup$ I clarified the finite formula statement. The finite group commutator is not a rotation, but utilizing the linked answer, as suggested by @naturallyInconsistent, you may get a pure rotation. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 20:32
  • $\begingroup$ You may stick to 4x4 notation, if you wish... $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 20:44

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.