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So this question is inspired by the explanation of EM waves slowing down in a material through interference with waves produced by the material in response to the incoming EM wave. You can see infotainment videos covering this topic covered by 3blue1brown and Fermilab at these respective links:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KTzGBJPuJwM

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CUjt36SD3h8

Both videos explain how the induced EM wave interferes with the incoming EM wave, and the summation of these two waves produces a slower moving wave.

So, my question is can this effect be induced simply by combining EM waves with the same frequency but with a different phase? It seems like, from the explanations, that the waves would interfere and produce a slower moving composite wave in the same manner.

If this isn't the case, what is the key difference that produces a different outcome when waves are interfering after being induced in a material vs interfering after being combined with some other approach?

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  • $\begingroup$ If you have superposition of waves (of the same frequency) with the same phase traveling in the same direction with velocity $c$, the result is a single wave also traveling in the same direction with $c$. The crucial point is that in a material, you have both forward and backward traveling waves, the latter coming from oscillating charges farther along in the direction of propagation. In general, the superposition of all these waves is two waves traveling forward and backward with phase velocity $c'$, which is different from $c$. It does take some math to show all this. $\endgroup$
    – Puk
    Commented Dec 3, 2023 at 19:39
  • $\begingroup$ Are you saying the backward propagating waves play a role in slowing down the forward propagating waves? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 3, 2023 at 20:07
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, but to put it a bit more precisely, I would say the backward propagating waves (in addition to the incident wave, plus the forward propagating waves produced by oscillating charges) play a role in producing a single, slower forward propagating wave. $\endgroup$
    – Puk
    Commented Dec 3, 2023 at 20:26
  • $\begingroup$ I've just realized in my first comment I accidentally typed "[waves] with the same phase". I meant waves with different phases, which is what you are asking about. $\endgroup$
    – Puk
    Commented Dec 3, 2023 at 20:31
  • $\begingroup$ Two waves don't do that. An effectively infinite collection of phase-shifted reradiated waves does. $\endgroup$
    – John Doty
    Commented Dec 4, 2023 at 18:41

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Perhaps translating mathematically will help clarify some things. For simplicity, I'll assume a 1D setup, with the EM fields and polarisation: $$ \begin{align} E_x(z,t) && B_y(z,t) && P_x(z,t) \end{align} $$ Maxwell's equations give: $$ \begin{align} \partial_zE_x &= -\partial_tB_y & -\partial_zB_y &= \mu_0\partial_tP_x+\frac{1}{c^2}\partial_t E_x \end{align} $$ Note that you can equivalently describe it with a single scalar quantity $A_x(z,t)$: $$ \begin{align} E_x &= -\partial_tA_x & B_y &= \partial_zA_x \end{align} $$ You'll need to add how to model matter: $$ P_x = \epsilon_0\chi *E_x $$ where $*$ is a temporal convolution product. I'll assume $\chi$ to be a Dirac for simplicity (the convolution is therefore a simple multiplication by a constant), but in general it is causal with a larger support.

Your plane of electrons can be modelled by taking: $$ \chi = \chi_0\delta(z) $$ so that the polarisation is localised at $z=0$. Now, adding an EM wave: $$ \begin{align} E_x^0 &= \hat E_xe^{i\omega(z/v-t)} & B_x^0 &= \hat B_xe^{i\omega(z/v-t)} \\ v &= \pm c & \hat B_y &= \frac{1}{v}\hat E_x \end{align} $$ From now on, the time dependence will always be $e^{-i\omega t}$ by linearity, so I will drop this factor.

The wave induces a polarisation: $$ P_x = \epsilon_0\chi_0\hat E_x\delta(z) $$ which in turn radiates waves (taking the retarded solution by causality): $$ \begin{align} A_x &= \int \frac{-i\omega}{(kc)^2-\omega^2}\chi_0\hat E_xe^{ikz}\frac{dk}{2\pi} \\ &= \frac{\chi_0}{2c}\hat E_xe^{i\omega|z|/c} \end{align} $$ which gives the fields: $$ \begin{align} E_x &= \frac{\chi_0i\omega}{2c}\hat E_xe^{i\omega|z|/c} \\ B_y &= \frac{\chi_0i\omega \text{ sgn}(z)}{2c^2}\hat E_xe^{i\omega|z|/c} \end{align} $$ As expected, you have two waves travelling away from the plane. Importantly, they both acquired a phase relative to the original wave.

The key fact is that in a medium, you have a continuum of polarisation planes. When a waves comes in, they radiate the previously calculated fields. However these scattered fields will in turn repolarise the medium and which will radiate light and so on ad infinitum. You have two possible approaches. Either solve the equations self consistently or sum up explicitly these scattered waves. The former is much easier and is done in all standard textbooks.

Taking back Maxwell's equations, you now assume $\chi$ to be independent on $z$. You still have: $$ P_x = \epsilon_0\chi E_x $$ but $E_x$ is the total EM fields which include the radiated fields due to the oscillation of $P_x$. You should therefore view this as a self-consistent equation. The usual method gives the dispersion relation with the index of refraction: $$ n = \sqrt{1+\chi} $$ This nonlinear dependence in $\chi$ translates the complicated resummation that has been bypassed.

If you truly want to understand how the individual phases conspire to a slow down the wave, you'll have to do the second method. The idea is to write the total field: $$ \begin{align} E_x &= \sum_nE_x^n & B_y &= \sum_nB_y^n \end{align} $$ with $E_x^0,B_y^0$ is your original plane wave and calculate by induction $E_x^{n+1}$ as the radiated waves by the polarisations induced by $E_x^n$. Using the previous formula and integrating over all the planes, you can write down the recurrence relation: $$ \begin{align} E_x^{(n+1)}(z) &= \chi\int\frac{i\omega}{2c}E_x^n(\zeta)e^{i\omega|z-\zeta|/c}d\zeta \\ B_y^{(n+1)}(z) &= \chi\int\frac{i\omega\text{ sgn}(z-\zeta)}{2c^2}E_x^n(\zeta)e^{i\omega|z-\zeta|/c}d\zeta \end{align} $$ As you can see, this is effectively a Taylor series in $\chi$. As Puk commented, it is important to take into account both the forward radiating waves and backward ones. Since we already know that the total field is: $$ \begin{align} E_x &= e^{i\frac{\omega z}{v}\sqrt{1+\chi}} & B_y &= \frac{1}{v}e^{i\frac{\omega z}{v}\sqrt{1+\chi}} \end{align} $$ Actually, using the previous remark, you can actually calculate the $E_x^n,B_y^n$ by Taylor expanding the formula in $\chi$. You'll therefore see how the phases interfere to give you a slowing down.

It is a nice complementary picture to the usual method, even if it's hard to do any explicit calculations with it. For example, one insight is that if $\chi$ is real and causal, the impulse response cannot travel faster than the speed of light, since it is true at every term of the perturbative expansion. You can check this explicitly with the solved expression, which is not completely obvious.

Caveat: the previous argument of causality only holds if the time response of the susceptibility $\chi(t)$ is regular enough at $t\to 0^+$, or equivalently that in the frequency domain $\hat \chi(\omega)$ decays for $\omega\to+\infty$. Indeed, say for a constant $\hat \chi \in (-1,0)$, the impulse response travels faster than the speed of light even if all the terms in the perturbative series travel slower than it. This is because the convergence is tricky to define in the time domain as it is essentially a Taylor expansion of a Dirac delta. The core of the argument is that formally: $$ \delta(x+h) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{h^n}{n!}\delta^{(n)}(x) $$ so even the distribution is supported on $\{-h\}$, you can write it as a "sum" of distributions supported on $\{0\}$. When trying to model materials more accurately, you do get a more regular susceptibility, so the impulse response will travel slower than the speed of light for realistic materials.

Hope this helps.

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  • $\begingroup$ Are you sure about the $\text{sgn}(z)$ factor? The radiative field of the oscillating charge in the plane is mirror-symmetric wrt the plane, thus an even function centered at the plane, at any time. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 4, 2023 at 16:18
  • $\begingroup$ Also why are you integrating over $k$ in the expression for $A_x$? There is only one $k$ if we consider definite $\omega$. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 4, 2023 at 16:23
  • $\begingroup$ Yes you're right, thanks ! Now $A_x,E_x,B_y$ have the correct symmetries. For your second comment, I'm just inverting the 1D Helmholtz by going in Fourier space. This requires integrating over all k . Even if on the right and on the left there seems to be only one mode, the field on the whole domain requires all wave modes to be described. $\endgroup$
    – LPZ
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 0:42
  • $\begingroup$ I appreciate the time you put into this answer, but unfortunately it isn't something I have the education to follow and understand. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2023 at 19:27
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Here is an alternative to LPZ's analysis that shows how a phase velocity smaller than that in vacuum comes about from a medium reradiating the incident field. Let $E$ be the E-field in a medium defined by the region $a<z<b$, in response to an incident field $E_0 = Ae^{-ikz}$, where $k = \omega/c$ is the wave number in vacuum. The field has an implied $e^{i\omega t}$ factor that gives the time dependence. Each infinitesimal layer at point $z'$ sees the field $E(z')$, and reradiates it outward with a phase factor of $-ie^{-ik|z-z'|}$. The reason for the $-i$ factor, corresponding to a $90^\circ$ delay, can be found in the answers to this question (note that this is a good approximation in many cases, but not all).

We can write

$$E(z) =E_0(z)+\int\limits_a^bdz'\left[-i\alpha e^{-ik|z-z'|}E(z')\right] $$ where $\alpha > 0$ is a real parameter that describes the strength of the medium's response to an external E-field. Rewriting, $$E-E_0=-i\alpha\left[e^{-ikz}\int\limits_a^zdz'E(z')e^{ikz'} + e^{ikz}\int\limits_z^bdz'E(z')e^{-ikz'}\right].\tag{1}\label{1}$$ Differentiating, $$E'-E_0' = -i\alpha\left[E(z) - ike^{-ikz}\int\limits_a^zdz'E(z')e^{ikz'} -E(z)+ik e^{ikz}\int\limits_z^bdz'E(z')e^{-ikz'}\right]$$ $$= \alpha k\left[-e^{-ikz}\int\limits_a^zdz'E(z')e^{ikz'} + e^{ikz}\int\limits_z^bdz'E(z')e^{-ikz'}\right].$$ Differentiating again, $$E''-E_0''= -2\alpha kE + i\alpha k^2\left[e^{-ikz}\int\limits_a^zdz'E(z')e^{ikz'} + e^{ikz}\int\limits_z^bdz'E(z')e^{-ikz'}\right].$$ Using $\eqref{1}$ to substitute in $\frac i \alpha(E-E_0)$ for the factor in square brackets, $$E'' + (k^2 + 2\alpha k)E - (E_0'' + k^2E_0)= 0.$$ $x'' + \kappa^2x = 0$ is the Helmholtz equation with wavenumber $\kappa$, which is just the wave equation for fields with harmonic (sinusoidal) time variation. The incident field $E_0$ satisfies it with the vacuum wavenumber $k$ (you can verify this), so the last term in parentheses is zero. We are left with $$E'' + (k^2 + 2\alpha k)E = 0.$$ This is the Helmholtz equation with wavenumber $\kappa = \sqrt{k^2 + 2\alpha k} = nk > 1$, where $n = \sqrt{1 + 2\alpha/k} > 1$ is the refractive index of the medium. The solutions are any linear combination of $e^{\mp inkz}$, which represent forward and backward traveling waves with phase velocity $\omega/(nk) = c/n$.

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  • $\begingroup$ A much easier (and standard) way to get the final equation is to use the Maxwell equations for $\mathbf E,\mathbf B$ in linear medium and derive the wave equation for $E$. Then seek a solution as linearly polarized plane wave with parameter $k$, which leads to the last equation for $k$. The advantage of this way is one does not need to assume the phase shift by a quarter period and write as many integrals. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 4, 2023 at 22:53
  • $\begingroup$ @JánLalinský I'm aware of the standard approach which yields the Helmholtz equation right away. Nonetheless I think it is instructive to start with an equation that very explicitly includes the waves reradiated by the medium as an integral over the medium. $\endgroup$
    – Puk
    Commented Dec 4, 2023 at 23:01

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