Is there a difference between { a particle that acts as a wave} & { a wave that acts as a particle} ?? Ex: when u consider electrons, they have a specific mass and an inconstant velocity, but when we consider photons, they neither have a specific mass nor a changing velocity.
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1$\begingroup$ All elementary particles exhibit the wave particle duality. An electron has different properties than a photon and these two are different from say, a Neutrino. Having / not having mass, and having / not having a constant velocity are independent of the wave-particle character. $\endgroup$– AmitCommented Feb 24, 2023 at 12:22
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1$\begingroup$ Don't get hung-up on word arguments. QM is expressed in mathematical symbols. Yes, we must describe those symbols in terms of words. But it's the relationships of the symbols that we should be thinking about. $\endgroup$– Boba FitCommented Feb 24, 2023 at 13:37
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2$\begingroup$ Photons are particles and do have a specific mass, namely zero. $\endgroup$– my2ctsCommented Oct 7 at 13:19
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Wave-particle duality is best seen with the help of the de Broglie relation between matter and wave: $$ h=p \lambda \tag 1 \label{eq:1}$$
(or between wave and matter, if you switch terms $\lambda p$, it doesn't matter how you say it). What is a most profound statement here is that if something is material,- it has to have characteristic wave-length; otherwise, $\eqref{eq:1}$ would not hold. And in reverse, if there are some oscillations (not dependent on roots,- mechanical, electrical, gravitational, etc.),- they must impart some momentum $p$, which basically is attributed to particles; likewise, $\eqref{eq:1}$ would not hold either.
Unless something doesn't have momentum at all, then as per $\eqref{eq:1}$ definition $\lambda \to \infty$, which is indeterminate form $0 \cdot \infty$, and then we can't be sure that happens there,- wave-particle principle is then destroyed. Keep in mind that this situation is pretty much unphysical because neither there exist waves with infinite wavelengths, nor can you have zero momentum because, at the microscopic level, everything moves more or less because it's bounded by Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
As this question is with a bit of philosophical taste, I'll finish my answer with the Latin roots of the word "duality",
"twofold nature, state of being two or divided in two," late 14c., from Late Latin dualitas, from Latin dualis "that contains two; the dual number, duality," from duo "two" (from PIE root *dwo- "two").
So matter and wave properties are different sides of the same "thing", like two sides of the same cent.
answered Oct 7 at 13:13