0
$\begingroup$

It is easily proven that:

$$\partial_{\lambda} F_{\mu \nu} + \partial_{\mu} F_{\nu \lambda}+ \partial_{\nu} F_{\lambda \mu} = 0$$

Lots of sources say this equation implies the Homogeneous Maxwell equations: $\nabla \times \mathbf E + \dfrac{\partial \mathbf B}{\partial t} = 0$ and $\nabla \cdot \mathbf B = 0$.

But I cannot find a proof of this derivation.

This is clear from their definitons: $\mathbf B = \nabla \times \mathbf A$ and $\mathbf E = -\nabla \phi - \dot{\mathbf A}$, since $\nabla \cdot (\nabla \times \mathbf v) = 0$ and $\nabla \times (\nabla f) = 0$.

But how can I find these results from the Bianchi identity?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

The Bianchi identity, or just the fact that $F_{\mu\nu}$ is antisymmetry, leads to:

$$\epsilon^{\alpha\beta\gamma\delta} \partial_\beta F_{\gamma\delta} = 0$$

Noting that $E^i = -F^{0i}$ and that $B^i = -\frac{1}{2}\epsilon_{ijk}F^{jk}$ where $i,j,k = 1,2,3$, then we can choose $\alpha = 0$, or $\alpha = i$.

For $\alpha = 0$, we have $\epsilon^{0ijk}\partial_i F_{jk} = 0$ so $\partial_i (\epsilon_{ijk}F^{jk}) = 0$ and $\nabla \cdot \mathbf B = 0$.

For $\alpha = i$, we have:

\begin{align*} \epsilon^{i0jk}\partial_0 F_{jk } + \epsilon^{ij0k}\partial_j F_{0k} + \epsilon^{ijk0}\partial_j F_{k0} &= 0 \\ \partial_0(\epsilon_{ijk}F^{jk}) + 2 \epsilon_{ijk} \partial_j F^{0k} &= 0 \\ 2\dfrac{\partial \mathbf B}{\partial t} + 2 \nabla \times \mathbf E &= 0 \\ \nabla \times \mathbf E + \dfrac{\partial \mathbf B}{\partial t} &= 0 \end{align*}

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.