1
$\begingroup$

How is it possible a spin-1 particle to ever have a magnetic moment?

Is there any analytical solution to this?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

The W bosons have magnetic moments according to the fact that they have a spin and are charged. Indeed in the standard model there is an interaction term of the form: \begin{equation} \mathcal{L}_{WW\gamma}=-ieF_{\mu \nu} W^{+,\mu} W^{-,\nu} \end{equation} Where $F$ is the Faraday tensor, and $W^+$ and $W^-$ are the fields associated to the bosons. This term can be rewritten as: \begin{equation} -ie \partial_\mu (W^{+,\mu}W^{-,\nu}-W^{-,\mu}W^{+,\nu})A_\nu \end{equation} Which resembles a lot to the corresponding term in QED for fermions : $-\frac{e}{2m}\partial_\mu(\overline{\Psi} \sigma^{\mu \nu} \Psi)A_\nu$. In fact, and according to the article "How Large is the “Natural” Magnetic Moment?" eq. (22), this interaction term leads to: \begin{equation} \mathcal{L}_{WW\gamma}\leadsto-\frac{e}{2m}\partial_i \epsilon^{ijk}\langle f | S_k | i \rangle A_j \end{equation} Which is indeed of the form of a magnetic momentum.

$\endgroup$
8
  • $\begingroup$ Lesson learned: As long you have a combination of non-zero charge and non-zero spin you have a magnetic moment. $\endgroup$
    – Markoul11
    Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 19:01
  • $\begingroup$ Nevertheless, neutrinos don't have charge, only spin but still have a magnetic moment. So I guess this rule of thumb is not general. $\endgroup$
    – Markoul11
    Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 19:09
  • $\begingroup$ @Markoul11 Neutrinos don't have magnetic moment per se, there's only one because of the electroweak model allowing a loop W/lepton that can be attached to a photon and an incoming and an outgoing neutrino. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6, 2021 at 10:48
  • $\begingroup$ I disagree. Their magnetic moment is analytically proven (2.1 section, [tinyurl.com/hv64n884] and the upper limit of the magnetic moment experimentally defined at $\mu_{\nu}<2 \times 10^{-11} \mu_{B}$. They have so much small tiny magnetic moment because their so tiny mass which is also priori in order a particle to have a magnetic moment. $\endgroup$
    – Markoul11
    Commented Nov 6, 2021 at 12:58
  • $\begingroup$ @Markoul11 see here the answer of Chris. As I said, neutrinos have a magnetic moment only due to loop diagrams, not due to their nature. Since there's no photon/neutrino/antineutrino vertex in the SM, they can't have a "bare" magnetic moment. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6, 2021 at 13:11
0
$\begingroup$

The definition of the spin is a intrinsic magnetic moment.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Correction: For 1/2 spin, not for spin 1. $\endgroup$
    – Markoul11
    Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 9:23

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.