How is it possible a spin-1 particle to ever have a magnetic moment?
Is there any analytical solution to this?
The W bosons have magnetic moments according to the fact that they have a spin and are charged. Indeed in the standard model there is an interaction term of the form: \begin{equation} \mathcal{L}_{WW\gamma}=-ieF_{\mu \nu} W^{+,\mu} W^{-,\nu} \end{equation} Where $F$ is the Faraday tensor, and $W^+$ and $W^-$ are the fields associated to the bosons. This term can be rewritten as: \begin{equation} -ie \partial_\mu (W^{+,\mu}W^{-,\nu}-W^{-,\mu}W^{+,\nu})A_\nu \end{equation} Which resembles a lot to the corresponding term in QED for fermions : $-\frac{e}{2m}\partial_\mu(\overline{\Psi} \sigma^{\mu \nu} \Psi)A_\nu$. In fact, and according to the article "How Large is the “Natural” Magnetic Moment?" eq. (22), this interaction term leads to: \begin{equation} \mathcal{L}_{WW\gamma}\leadsto-\frac{e}{2m}\partial_i \epsilon^{ijk}\langle f | S_k | i \rangle A_j \end{equation} Which is indeed of the form of a magnetic momentum.
The definition of the spin is a intrinsic magnetic moment.