My question is very highly related to Why doesn't current flow in reverse biased diode?
Basically, I would like to understand in more depth John Rennie answer. At $t=0$, I consider a PN junction not plugged to any generator. Then, I will have a depletion region and something like:
The diffusion of the holes from P to N (and of the electron from N to P) is being compensated by electrostatic force created on the depletion region. Nothing is moving.
Then, at $t=0$, I plug in a voltage generator in reverse biais.
I focus on holes (but analog reasoning holds for electrons). They cannot move from left to right in the depletion region because of the electrostatic field. I could imagine them moving from right to left. They are negligible in the N region so we could believe that such motion is impossible. But they can go from P to the wire, arrive to N and then cross the depletion region.
On the other post it is explained that this gives rise to a transient current that will stop after some time. This is precisely what I would like to understand.
My question
At $t=0^+$, a current can be initiated from the phenomenon I described. Now, in principle $V_{gen}$ can be different from the potential of the depletion region at zero biais.
Thus I guess that what happens is that for a short time: $$V_{\text{gen}} \neq V_{\text{depletion}}$$ (we are not in electrostatic so it is not contradictory with electric laws: $\overrightarrow{E}=-\overrightarrow{\nabla} V - \partial_t \overrightarrow{A}$, electric field is not conservative outside of electrostatic regime)
Then, after this transient regime, things go to equilibrium and I have:
$$V_{\text{gen}}=V_{\text{depletion}}$$
Where of course, now $V_{\text{depletion}} \neq V_{\text{depletion}}^{\text{0 biais}}$.
Do you agree until now ?
We could believe that the physics is now equivalent to a standard PN junction in which the depletion zone would have instead of a voltage drop $V_{\text{depletion}}^{\text{0 biais}}$, a voltage drop $V_{\text{depletion}}$.
But still, there are those "wires" around that allow the holes from P to move toward N. The fact $V_{\text{gen}}=V_{\text{depletion}}$ is for me irrelevant to the discussion, if I replaced the PN junction by a resistor I would have $V_{\text{gen}}=V_{\text{resistor}}$ and there would obviously have a current in the resistor in this case.
What am I missing here ?
s/biais/bias/
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