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Consider a one-dimensional integral $$I(g)=\int dx\, e^{-x^2-gx^4}$$ One can formally expand it perturbatively order by order in $g$ so that $$I(g)=\left<1\right>-g\left<x^4\right>+\frac{g^2}{2}\left<x^8\right>+O(g^3)$$ where $\left<f(x)\right>:=\int dx\, e^{-x^2}f(x)$. This expansion is asymptotic but that's fine. I thought that basically the same procedure applies to QFT. Consider $$Z(g)=\int \mathcal{D}\phi\,\, e^{-\int (\nabla \phi)^2+g\phi^4}$$ and expand it formally in $g$ $$Z(g)= \left<1\right>-g\left<\phi^4\right>+\frac{g^2}{2} \left<\phi^8\right>+O(g^3)$$ where $\left<f(\phi)\right>:=\int \mathcal{D}\phi\,\, e^{-\int (\nabla \phi)^2}f(\phi)$. My problem with that expression is that it involves correlation functions at coincident points (which then need to be integrated over space). But correlators at coincident points are infinite.

Are these superficial infinities related to the renormalization necessary in QFT? Or this is a different issue (I believe it is)? How the formulas should be corrected then?

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You can absorb these divergences from self contractions (‘search for cephalopod Feynman diagrams and ‘complete normal ordering’ in google) into your bare couplings and wavefunction renormalisation (the required bare couplings need to exist in your theory if it is renormalisable). In the g=0 example the same applies, but now the bare coupling is a “cosmological constant” that you can include or ignore depending on the question and background spacetime of interest.

So yes, these are related to renormalisation of qft, but sometimes these diagrams do not affect the beta functions (i.e. do not affect the RG flow) in which case they might be dropped. They are usually identified with normal ordering (more generally ` complete normal ordering’) issues, which is a type of renormalisation but often more mild. These diagrams can affect and shift the vacuum around which you are doing perturbation theory if it so happens that you chose the wrong vacuum in your perturbation expansion.

In general, the procedure that removes all these self contraction diagrams (which automatically also ensures you are doing perturbation theory around the exact vacuum) is `complete normal ordering’.

Ellis, J., Mavromatos, N. & Skliros, D., Complete Normal Ordering 1: Foundations, Nucl.Phys. B909 (2016) 840-879

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    $\begingroup$ Thank you for the input and references. I will look into them and see if they settle this for me. Then come back here. I actually have a concrete computation in mind which is more specific than the question I'm asking. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 21:29
  • $\begingroup$ (Incidentally, in the link I provided you can also find version 1 of the article which is longer and contains more pedagogical details) $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 23:52
  • $\begingroup$ I've convinced myself that this is a normal-ordering issue (you could check out my answer). One thing that bothers me is that you link to a relatively new paper while my question seems to be QFT 101. Any suggestions for treatment in standard textbooks along these lines? I'm also interested to applying this in curved spaces. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 11, 2020 at 12:15
  • $\begingroup$ there is no textbook that i am aware of that explains this properly. note that at higher loops subtracting out self contractions using the free propagator at coincident points is not sufficient, hence the need for complete normal ordering as opposed to the more elementary notion of normal ordering. that paper gives the exact cancellation mechanism at all loop orders. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 11, 2020 at 12:22
  • $\begingroup$ also, the paper i referred to is for curved spaces also $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 11, 2020 at 12:23
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So this is a type of infinity that physicists don't usually worry about because they stem from the fact that we have to consider 2 (or more) particles at the same spacetime point.

Now why is this a problem you may ask? Well, in the current (ill-defined) construction of QFT, localising particles at the same point involves the high energy behaviour of the theory. You can see this by simply looking at Heisenberg uncertainty principle, or think in terms of wavelength and momentum.
Anyway, we do not have a UV-complete description of QFT, therefore these high energy fluctuations must be integrated out, or if you prefer, the theory that we use is already an integrated version of the full theory.

And to answer your question, the renormalisation group allows one to flow from a theory at one energy to another but it doesn't really make sense to extrapolate all the way up the energy scale because we have no idea what is out there so we must stop as some arbitrary scale basically.

Finally, since this singularities arise from our wanting to put 2 particle at the same spacetime point, one way around this problem is to consider strings, which can happily sit on top of one another. So string theory is UV complete (or thought to be, I'm a little unclear on that).

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  • $\begingroup$ So are you saying that this is a textbook renormalization issue? But shouldn't it only become apparent when I look at the integrals and not just integrands? For instance I haven't specified spacetime dimension. $\phi^4$ is finite at least in some dimensions, isn't it? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 18:57
  • $\begingroup$ So I was making a general statement about qft, having the standard model in the back of my mind. But I'm not saying we can't renormalise these infinities, I am merely trying to outline the origin of them. Just because a theory is renormalisable at some scale doesn't mean it is finite in the UV. So this is a very deep problem that definitely doesn't have a clear solution right now. Finally, I don't know anything about axiomatic qft, but I believe we currently have a safe understanding of free scalar theory, but no more. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 19:18
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    $\begingroup$ Sorry, your answers are a bit too general for me. Say I would like to actually do the computation. You are suggesting that the this is a renormalization issue, then the first thing I should do is to regularize individual terms, right? How would I begin? Say conventional dimensional regularization does not seem applicable. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 19:35
  • $\begingroup$ And I'm still not sure that renormalization is important here. Say I replace the quartic term by the quadratic term $(m^2+g)\phi^2$ and treat $g$ as a perturbation. This is just a free theory with shifted mass. There should be no divergent integrals, right? But the formal expansion will still contain terms like $\left<\phi^2\right>$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 19:35
  • $\begingroup$ Even the harmonic oscillator has divergences that must be absorbed into “cosmological constant” and wavefunction renormalisation, which is analogous to the g=0 free qft. See. e.g., Polchinski’s string theory textbook volume 1 p.339-340. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2020 at 20:38
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As suggested by Wakabaloola this seems to be a normal-ordering issue. I will review here a toy example that was helpful for me. Consider a propagator in a free scalar field theory $$G^{m^2}(x,y)=\left<\phi(x)\phi(y)\right>=\frac{\int\mathcal{D}\phi e^{-S_{m^2}[\phi]}\phi(x)\phi(y)}{\int\mathcal{D}\phi e^{-S_{m^2}[\phi]}},\qquad S_{m^2}=\frac12\int \nabla\phi^2+m^2\phi^2$$ For any $m$ this propagator is Green's function of the massive Laplacian $$(-\Delta+m^2)G^{m^2}(x,y)=\delta(x-y)$$ so we know what it is. Now let us replace $m^2\to m^2+\mu^2$ and treat $\mu^2$ as a small perturbation. Then we expect $$G^{m^2+\mu^2}(x,y)=G^{m^2}(x,y)+\mu^2\frac{\partial}{\partial m^2}G^{m^2}(x,y)+O(\mu^4)=\frac{\int\mathcal{D}\phi e^{-S_{m^2}[\phi]}\phi(x)\phi(y)\Big(1-\frac{\mu^2}2\int\phi^2+O(\mu^4)\Big)}{\int\mathcal{D}\phi e^{-S_{m^2}[\phi]}\Big(1-\frac{\mu^2}2\int\phi^2+O(\mu^4)\Big)}=\frac{\left<\phi(x)\phi(y)\right>-\frac{\mu^2}2\int_z\left<\phi(x)\phi(y)\phi^2(z)\right>+O(\mu^4)}{\left<1\right>-\frac{\mu^2}2\int_z\left<\phi^2(z)\right>+O(\mu^4)}$$ Although here the interaction term is just quadratic it still produces the problematic self-contractions. This example also illustrates that maybe computing just the partition function (the denominator) is no good, it's better to consider some observable.

One way to deal with this formal problem is by assuming that fields coming from the action are normal-ordered. This excludes their self-contractions. In particular it implies that denominator just $\left<1\right>$ so that the first non-trivial correction is $$-\frac{\mu^2}2\int_z\left<\phi(x)\phi(y)\phi^2(z)\right>\to-\mu^2\int_z\left<\phi(x)\phi(z)\right>\left<\phi(y)\phi(z)\right>=-\mu^2 \int_z G(x,z)G(z,y)$$ which is finite. Interestingly, comparing with the direct expansion of $G^{m^2+\mu^2}$ this implies a relation for the propagator $$\partial_{m^2}G^{m^2}(x,y)=-\int_z G^{m^2}(x,z)G^{m^2}(z,y)$$ which can indeed be derived by differentiating the Laplace equation w.r.t. $m^2$.

So at least in this case the naive perturbation theory with the normal-ordering prescription seems to be a valid method.

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