I recently had a discussion with a friend of mine who is like me studying physics. And we might got used to a misconception about the Lagrange-Formalism in field theory. In common field theory books one just states that the action is given by $$ \mathcal S[\phi] = \int \mathcal L (\phi(x), \partial_\mu\phi(x),x)\, \text d ^4 x $$ where $\phi$ is some field and $x$ is a point in space time. In classical mechanics we learn that the action is given by $$ \mathcal S[q] = \int_a^b L(q(t), \dot{q}(t),t)\, \text d t $$ This functional maps a trajectory $t\mapsto q(t)$ to a scalar $\mathcal S$ where the path which is taken by the object is the one wich yields the minimal value of $\mathcal S$. So in field theory I always thought we would do something quite similar. We would search a field configuration $\phi(x)$ which minimizes the value computed by $\mathcal S[\phi]$. To do so we would integrate over all space time $\mathbb R \times \mathbb R ^3$. Or would we rather integrate over all space $\mathbb R ^3$ and then over a time interval $[a, b]$, since we need some kind of boundary of the field configuration to later perform the variation of $\mathcal S$? Or do i get everything wrong and we really describe the propagation of a field $\phi$ from one point in space-time to another?
I am actually very confused about a thing which i thought i understood pretty well and i am very thankful for every insight. Once again i am very shocked that one tends to get used to formalism even it is not understood deeply.