I'd like to argue that equations of motions of the form $$\ddot \varphi = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad \ddot\theta = \sin\theta\cos\theta\dot\varphi^2$$ describe a great circle.
I think the standard argument goes something like this: $$\ddot\varphi =0\quad \Longrightarrow\quad \dot\varphi = const. =:\omega\quad \Longrightarrow\quad \varphi(t)=\omega t + \varphi_0.$$ We can now fix an initial condition for $\theta$, lets say, $\theta(t=0)=\pi/2$. With this we get $$\ddot \theta(t=0)= 0\quad \Longrightarrow \quad \theta(t)=\frac{\pi}{2},\quad \forall t,$$ which would describe a great circle.
And this last implication is where I get lost. What exactly is the argument that guarantees here that $\theta$ is constant in all time? It seems to be related to $\dot\varphi = const.$ but I just cann't formulate a satisfying argument why $\dot \theta = 0$.