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I'd like to argue that equations of motions of the form $$\ddot \varphi = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad \ddot\theta = \sin\theta\cos\theta\dot\varphi^2$$ describe a great circle.

I think the standard argument goes something like this: $$\ddot\varphi =0\quad \Longrightarrow\quad \dot\varphi = const. =:\omega\quad \Longrightarrow\quad \varphi(t)=\omega t + \varphi_0.$$ We can now fix an initial condition for $\theta$, lets say, $\theta(t=0)=\pi/2$. With this we get $$\ddot \theta(t=0)= 0\quad \Longrightarrow \quad \theta(t)=\frac{\pi}{2},\quad \forall t,$$ which would describe a great circle.

And this last implication is where I get lost. What exactly is the argument that guarantees here that $\theta$ is constant in all time? It seems to be related to $\dot\varphi = const.$ but I just cann't formulate a satisfying argument why $\dot \theta = 0$.

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Note that we can perform a fairly standard trick with the $\theta$ equation:

$$2\dot \theta \ddot \theta = 2\sin(\theta)\cos(\theta)\dot \theta \dot \varphi^2$$ $$\implies \frac{d}{dt}\left(\dot \theta ^2\right) = \frac{d}{dt}\left(\dot \varphi^2\sin^2(\theta)\right)$$

since $\dot\varphi$ is constant. Therefore we have that $$\dot\theta^2 = \dot\varphi^2\sin^2(\theta)+C$$ $$\implies \dot\theta = \pm \sqrt{ \dot\varphi^2\sin^2(\theta)+C}$$

This is a bit easier to work with. Note also that you must fix two initial conditions for $\theta$, not just one.

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  • $\begingroup$ (+1) For the approach. I've thought about what you have written here, but I fail to see how this simplifies the problem. Assuming $\theta(0)=\pi/2$ and $\dot\theta(0)=0$ to be the initial condition, we can fix the value of $C$, but how do you show that $\theta=const.$ or equivalently $\dot\theta=0$? $\endgroup$
    – Sito
    Commented May 7, 2020 at 16:59
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    $\begingroup$ @Sito Put another way, $\theta$ is the solution to a well-behaved second-order ODE, so any solution which satisfies the equation as well as the initial conditions is unique. $\theta(t)=\pi/2$ works by inspection, so it's the correct solution. $\endgroup$
    – J. Murray
    Commented May 7, 2020 at 19:05
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the comment. So in essence, you show that you have a solution for a well defined ODE with initial condition and due to Picard–Lindelöf you get uniqueness. $\endgroup$
    – Sito
    Commented May 7, 2020 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ @Sito Yes. This is equivalent to the 1D case of a particle which experiences a potential given by $U(x) = \frac{1}{2}\cos(2x)$ (you can check to see this will give you the same equation of motion). $\pi/2$ is an equilibrium point, so if you start there with zero velocity, you will stay there forever. $\endgroup$
    – J. Murray
    Commented May 7, 2020 at 19:23

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