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I am a new learner of Physics, and I am just wondering is the translational effect of a force that does not pass through the center of mass of an object as big as the translational effect of another force of the same magnitude that does pass through the center of mass of the same object. Considering the following situation. enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. But I haven’t learned calculus. I will check it again when I have developed some knowledge about it. $\endgroup$
    – I_am_Ignorant
    Commented Jan 28, 2020 at 7:23

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In an unrestrained object, discounting friction and deformation of the mass, when in line with COM, all of the force goes into translation. When the force is off center to the COM, some of the force goes to rotation, and some to translation. So when the force is in line with the COM, you get the maximum translation of the object.

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  • $\begingroup$ Is this truly the case? I was taught that no matter where you draw the force, the magnitude of the translational effect the force has caused remain the same. Or is it because my question has some errors? A bit confused(lol) $\endgroup$
    – I_am_Ignorant
    Commented Jan 28, 2020 at 7:27
  • $\begingroup$ With an equal force in both cases, how can you have the same translational energy with rotational energy that you have if all the force goes to translation with no rotation? It would violate conservation of energy if the translation were the same in both cases, but one had extra energy for rotation. $\endgroup$
    – Adrian Howard
    Commented Jan 28, 2020 at 7:37
  • $\begingroup$ I apologize if I have missed the point of your question. $\endgroup$
    – Adrian Howard
    Commented Jan 28, 2020 at 7:39
  • $\begingroup$ On a rough surface, with no slipping, there would be rotation and translation in either case in your diagram, but it is labeled frictionless. $\endgroup$
    – Adrian Howard
    Commented Jan 28, 2020 at 7:44

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