I am a little bit confused about the following equations. In the lecture we derived the following four equations for a geodesic motion of a particle in Schwarzschild geometry using the Lagrangian approach:
$(1)\hspace{10mm}\Theta = \frac{\pi}{2}$
$(2)\hspace{10mm}\big( 1- \frac{2\mu}{r}\big )\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{\mathrm{d}\tau}=K$
$(3)\hspace{10mm}r^{2}\frac{\mathrm{d}\varphi}{\mathrm{d}\tau} = h$
$(4)\hspace{10mm}c^{2}\big( 1- \frac{2\mu}{r}\big )\big(\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{\mathrm{d}\tau}\big)^{2}-\big( 1- \frac{2\mu}{r}\big )^{-1}\big(\frac{\mathrm{d}r}{\mathrm{d}\tau}\big)^{2}-r^{2}\big (\frac{\mathrm{d}\varphi}{\mathrm{d}\tau}\big )^2=\begin{cases}=c^{2}, \hspace{5mm}\text{massive particle}\\ = 0, \hspace{5mm}\text{massless particle}\end{cases}$
where $t,r,\theta,\varphi$ are the usual Schwarzschild coordinates and $K$ and $h$ are constant (they do not depend on any coordinate).
Now to my question: Because $K$ is a constant, which does not depend on any other coordinate, we can look at the limit $r\to\infty$. Using equation (2) at this limit we find trivially $K=1$ and because K doesnt depend on the radial coordinate, K has to be equal 1 everywhere. Therefore we can rewrite eq. (2) as
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{\mathrm{d}\tau}=\bigg( 1- \frac{2\mu}{r}\bigg )^{-1}$$
But this cant be true!
Where is my thinking error?