Your instincts about pulling out the imaginary part is spot on! Here is an explanation as to why, and some educated guesses from there.
Consider an electric wave penetrating from air to metal.
Let $\vec{E}=\vec{E_0}e^{i(\vec{k}\cdot \vec{x}-\omega t)}$
Then taking the curl:
$\nabla \times \vec{E} =-\partial \vec{B}/ \partial t=i\vec{k}\times\vec{E_0}e^{i(\vec{k}\cdot \vec{x}-\omega t)}$
So $\vec{B}=(\vec{k}/\omega) \times \vec{E_0}e^{i(\vec{k}\cdot \vec{x}-\omega t)}$
The curl of $\vec{B}$ by
By Ohm's Law, $\vec{J}=\sigma\vec{E}$. Where $\vec{J}$ is the current density and $\sigma$ is the conductivity. We also assume $\vec{E_0}$ is time independent, then
$\frac{\partial \vec{E}}{\partial t }=-i\omega\vec{E}$
So by Ampere's Law: $\nabla \times \vec{B}=\mu_0\sigma\vec{E}-i\omega\vec{E}/c^2$
And using the identity:
$$\nabla \times (\vec{A}\times \vec{B})=(\nabla \cdot \vec{B})\vec{A}+(\vec{B}\cdot \nabla)|\vec{A}-\vec{B}(\nabla \cdot \vec{A})-(\vec{A} \cdot \nabla)\vec{B}$$
And where the curl of $\vec{k}$ is 0.
So $\nabla \times \vec{B}=(ik^2/\omega)\vec{E}$
So $(ik^2/\omega)=\mu_0\sigma-i\omega/c^2$
Solve for $k$, you get a complex number, say $k=a+bi$. So $ik=ai-b$.
So we get $e^{-b}$. The parameter, $b$, measures the decay of the electric field in the metal corresponding to the electric field being zero in the conductor.
So while the imaginary part carries physical meaning regarding decay in intensity, it doesn't seem to imply anything about the location of the particle. Not only does only the real part enter into the expression $i(\vec{a}\cdot \vec{x}-\omega t)$.
The time derivative of the electric field is also suggestive about what to make of the imaginary part of the wave number.
$$\frac{d\vec{E}}{dt}=-\nabla \vec{E}\cdot \vec{u}=-\vec{k}\vec{E}\cdot \vec{u}=-i\omega t \vec{E}$$
Where here $\vec{u}$ represents a velocity , $\vec{u}=\vec{m}+i\vec{n}$.
This leaves us with
$$(\vec{a}+i\vec{b})\cdot (\vec{m}+i\vec{n})=\omega $$
Equating real and imaginary parts we have:
$$\vec{a}\cdot \vec{m}-\vec{b}\cdot \vec{n}=\omega $$
$$\vec{a}\cdot\vec{n}+\vec{b}\cdot \vec{m}=0$$
Now $i\vec{n}$ represents the imaginary part of the velocity, $\vec{u}$. But what does an imaginary velocity mean?
If we assume it's zero, then the imaginary part of our wave number is orthogonal to the velocity.
Also remember the role the wave number plays trigonometrically, its is essentially the argument for $\sin{kx-\omega t}$.
If $k=a+ib$, we have $\sin{(a+ib)x-\omega t}$
But what is the the sine of a purely complex number? We can find this from Euler's Formula and find that its a decaying exponential.
So in terms of both velocity and cycles of constituent sine functions, the imaginary part of the wave number plays no role. It only represents a real exponent.
So it seems the physical meaning of the norm for $(\vec{k}=\vec{a}+i\vec{b}) $is $ norm Re\{\vec{k}\}$