# Faraday's Law and the Law of Inertia

Faraday's Law can be stated qualitatively as : Any loop (of wire) opposes/resists the change of magnetic flux through it.

The Law of Inertia states that any physical object resists its change in velocity.

Is it just a coincidence that charge (which is the source of electric and magnetic fields) and mass follow very similar physical laws?

Supposing that it is not a coincidence and on comparing the mathematical form of the two laws:

If electromagnetic induction and force are taken to be analogues (and similarly, momentum and magnetic flux), then what is the analogue of mass?

Does this relation between the laws suggest the possible unity of all forces?

A little background : I am a high school student and my last question may be laughable. If it is too wrong, do explain why. I would like a more intuitive and less mathematical explanation (which is understandable for a high school student) to my questions, but it is no necessity.

• I believe for the force-voltage mechanical analog, mass is the analog of inductance – Bob D Nov 10 '18 at 20:08
• @BobD is right. The analog is inductance, which qualitatively describes "how hard" it is to change the current (velocity) through the loop. I don't think this reveals any sort of deeper mechanisms of the universe. The equations just end up having the same form. – BioPhysicist Nov 10 '18 at 20:17