Consider some brownian motion for which we obtained the following solution for the langevin equations
$$ u\left(t\right)=e^{-\alpha t}\int_{0}^{t}e^{\alpha s}\left(\xi\left(s\right)-\xi'\left(s\right)\right)ds $$
Here, $\xi\left(t\right)$ and $\xi'\left(t\right)$ are two independent gaussian white noises with zero mean.
Question:
- I believe we can compute $\left\langle u\left(t_{1}\right)u\left(t_{2}\right)\right\rangle $ with the usual procedure where we consider $\left\langle \xi\left(t_{1}\right)\xi\left(t_{2}\right)\right\rangle =g\delta\left(t_{2}-t_{1}\right)$ if we consider $\left\langle \xi\left(t_{1}\right)\xi'\left(t_{2}\right)\right\rangle =0$ with the argument that the noise processes are independent; can you confirm if I am correct?
- The book I'm reading shows without proving a solution for $\left\langle u\left(t\right)\xi\left(t\right)\right\rangle $ and I am trying to understand how this is computed. I don't understand how the $\xi\left(t\right)$ could go inside the integral of $u\left(t\right)$ for one to be able to use the usal identity that yields the dirac delta. Do you have an idea how this is done? Could you please advise?