There are two definitions of the term "Brownian motion": a physical science definition based on how things such as Brownian particles move, and a mathematical definition as a certain continuous limit of a random walk. In the mathematical definition I think (please correct if I am wrong) the path is a fractal curve and therefore the instantaneous velocity is hard to define; it may even be undefined (?). But a physical thing such as a Brownian particle always has a well-defined velocity ${\bf v}(t)$ at each instant of time $t$ (in classical not quantum physics).
I think it is this instantaneous velocity which satisfies the equipartition theorem, so that for a particle in a fluid at temperature $T$ we have $$ \frac{1}{2} m \langle v_x^2 \rangle = \frac{1}{2} k_{\rm B} T $$ and similarly for $y$- and $z$-components. The average here could be read either as the average over many similar particles at some given time, or as the average over time for a single particle. (It is not self-evident that these two types of average agree, but I think they do in conditions of thermal equilibrium when the average in question is not itself changing with time.)
Another well known property of the motion is $$ \langle x^2 \rangle = 2 D t $$ where $D$ is a constant. Here I think the average has to be over many realisations of the experiment: this is not a time-average.
We also have $$ \langle x \rangle = 0, \;\;\;\;\; \langle v_x \rangle = 0. $$
My question is: what is the value of $\langle x v_x \rangle ?$
This is related to another recent question from me: Understanding mean rate of change in Brownian motion