Based on that notes (equation 54): https://warwick.ac.uk/fac/sci/physics/staff/academic/boyd/stuff/dirac.pdf
I was reading about the wave functions and I have a question about the notation. You can define the wave function like:
$\psi(p) = e^{-ix_{\mu}p^{\mu}}u(p)$
My question is: Why there is no dependence in the $\mu$ on the left hand side? The dependence in the wave function is only taking care $u(p)$.
UPDATE:
My question is because I am doing something more advanced and I have this same question, but for the wave function related to the matrix elements and fermions representation:
I have the follow definition for the pseudoscalar current:
$P^{ij}_5 (\vec{x}, t) = \sum_{y} \bar{\psi}^{i} (\vec{x}+\vec{y}, t) \gamma^5 \psi^{j} (\vec{y}, t)$
and then the wave function is defined as:
$\Psi_{P}(\vec{x}) = <\Omega|P^{ij}_5(\vec{x}, 0)| P>$
i and j are flavour indices.
then the same question: why there is no dependence in the LHS of the equation? Should I apply some theory or some convention?
Paper with the information: http://www.iaea.org/inis/collection/NCLCollectionStore/_Public/22/036/22036311.pdf